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  5. "These men like apples."

"These men like apples."

Translation:Ci mężczyźni lubią jabłka.

December 18, 2015



The ć sound historically developed in most cases from a soft t' (ть) how it is still present in Russian, Ukrainian or Slovak, however without ever becoming a full cz. To me ć is therefore a sound between cz and t'. When I pronounce cz my lips move slightly forward and form a circle. While pronouncing ć they almost retain their normal position.


excellent explanation (and I'm a phonologist)


When do you use Ci and not te?


You use "ci" when "these" refers to 'a group with at least one man'. "These men" clearly have at least one man.

You use "te" when there is no human male in the word that "these" refers to. So women, dogs, trees, houses, cars...


Thank you for that perfectly clear explanation, Jellei.


two questions before this one i got 'these boys like apples' or something and there it was tamci chłopcy. i wrote 'ci chłopcy..' and it was accepted. though the real answer was 'tamci ...' . i tried tamci here and it got rejected. can someone explain the difference between boys and men (haha)? thanks


I usually draw this visualisation to show where the Polish and English demonstrative pronouns overlap and where they don't:




So, those can translate to both ci and tamci, but these can only translate to ci. Similarly, ci can be both these and those, but tamci can only be those.


Are there big differences between the pronunciation of ci and czy?

I am familiar with the differences between the vocalic sounds, but not with the c/cz.



The letter c before i is pronounced like the letter ć. The sounds of ć and cz are indeed a bit similar, they both sound like a ch-sound, but ć is soft (the tongue is positioned as if you were saying the y in yes) whereas cz is retroflex (the tongue is positioned more or less as in the English r)


does the -ią indicate masculine plural adjectives? or masculine plural personal adjectives? or something else? And is jabłka in the accusative plural or is there no difference between the accusative and normative plural?


In this sentence lubią is the third person plural present form of lubić, which obviously is a verb. In the present tense Polish verbs are not inflected for gender and don't distinguish between the personal and non-personal category. So it would also be: 'te kobiety lubią jabłka' and or 'te psy lubią jabłka'.

Yes, the nominative form of the noun jabłko is identical to the accusative, in both singular and plural. In this sentence jabłko is plural/accusative.


I suddenly feel really silly for asking this, it seems obvious now. My brain must have been very tired yesterday. Thank you!


The accents in mezczyzni and mezczyzna seem to be different every time !!


The third letter remains unchanged.

It's the -i ending that causes the palatisation (softening) of two preceding consonants. N turns into ń and z turns into ź (acute accents are omitted before i by convention).

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