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- "Znam jej wujka."
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Just in case anyone is confused...this is the accusative, which apparently doesn't show up in the hint (on mobile anyway)
Every time I think I'm getting there with the grammar a simple sentence like this will trip me up. I understand that accusative is required after "znam", but surely "wujek" requires Genitive because of "jej"? I thought this was the case as it is possession = genitive. Can someone please explain?
You went too far with the possession thing. "jej" is just a simple possessive pronoun, it doesn't require any case. What is meant by "possessive = Genitive" is more or less the same thing that happens even in English with Saxon Genitive. Plus what takes Genitive is the 'owner', not the 'owned thing', so it wouldn't be "wujek" anyway.
Compare: "jej wujek" (her uncle) and "wujek Adama" (Adam's uncle). There's no Genitive in the first phrase, but Adam takes Genitive in the second one.
Great explanation as always, thank you. I had an inkling that this was the case, but this was the first time I noticed it.
Thanks again!
In English there are much less forms than in Polish, "her" is both possessive pronoun, and form of "she" used as object.
I know her. I know him. (Znam ją/ Znam go).
I know her uncle. I know his uncle. (Znam jej wujka. Znam jego wujka).
Immery, your right, I got totally mixed up, but you got me straight again.
I've looked it up again and if I'm right personal pronouns all fully decline to gender, number and case. Whereas 1st and 2nd possessive pronouns decline only to gender, and the 3rd possessive pronouns (jej, jego and ich) don't decline at all.
(oh, brother, can I somewhere vote for an update of this language?)
no. you are not right.
Personal pronouns decline to case.
I'm not sure if you can say they decline to number and gender, or more like there are different pronouns for them.
possesive pronouns:
first and second person (my/your/our/your - mój/twój/nasz/wasz)
decline like adjectives - to number, gender and case of the noun described ("owned")
third person possessive pronouns don't decline. (they change with number and gender of a person who "owns" the thing, but not with gender of the thing that is "owned".
I made the same mistake. Thanks a lot both! There are a lot of pieces in this language, and I thought I tripped up here! :D I'm back on course.
Can someone help to explain (preferably with some common-use examples) the difference in the ways in which znam and wiem ("i know") are used.
Is one of them the same as "I am aware of..."
Thanks in advance
"znam" may be closer to "I am familiar with".
"Znam jej wujka" = "I know her uncle".
"Wiem, że jej wujek jest bogaty" = "I know that her uncle is rich" (I have this knowledge).
Basically "znać" takes a direct object and "wiedzieć" does not, it needs something more 'descriptive'.
The only situation which comes to my mind in which both are correct is "Znam to"/"Wiem to". (I know this/that/it). "Wiem to" would be "I know that fact, I have this knowledge", while "Znam to" would be "Yeah, I know what you mean, I am familiar with such situations as well" (When your friend tells you about something that happened to them).
Thank you so much Jellei!!
You have answered a lot of my questions of last several days.
And a lot of them have been silly questions or silly examples (although you keep saying they arent silly questions).
But sometimes the examples I give are.
But anyway, thanks for ALL your replies. I cant find them.all imdividually to thank you, so please accept this one message as a show of my appreciation for your patience and dedication.
Thanks
