"I do not see that man."
Translation:Nie widzę tamtego mężczyzny.
In previous excersises: i have used the word "tego" in this context and it was correct. Of course, the previous excersise was not negated, but read as follows: "i see that man" which i translated as "widzę tego mężczyzny". It said i was correct. In this excersise, i used tego (Nie widzę tego mężczyzny) and said i should have used " tamtej" (or something along those lines)...why?
Please remind me: does a 'nie' cause the direct object to take the genitive case? With mężczyzny, it is irregular, so it has a feminine negative ending, but a masculine article?
Yes, a negated verb causes the direct object to be in the genitive case. And indeed, mężczyzna is masculine (so it takes a masculine article) but declinates like a feminine noun.
Not article but a demonstrative pronoun, Polish does not have articles. ;-) But yes, mężczyzna does decline similarly to feminine nouns in singular but nonetheless is masculine noun and takes masculine pronouns and adjectives.
I believe that 'panna' should be accepted as 'mezczyny' because the context is the same
panna - young (usually) and unmarried women
To be correct it should be "pana", and I would accept it but English sentence doesn't show any special kind of respect.