"I do not see that man."

Translation: Nie widzę tamtego mężczyzny.

[Fafasungrass]

In previous excersises: i have used the word "tego" in this context and it was correct. Of course, the previous excersise was not negated, but read as follows: "i see that man" which i translated as "widzę tego mężczyzny". It said i was correct. In this excersise, i used tego (Nie widzę tego mężczyzny) and said i should have used " tamtej" (or something along those lines)...why?

[Latcarf]

"tego" is "this" while "tamtego" is "that"

[k3rbe]

I said "mężczyzny" but without the accents on e and z, why didn't Duo count this as a typo as it would usually?

[MiloPaunov]

You probably made otger mistakes besides that. By the way, those are nit accents, but diacritics.

[henry2500]

Please remind me: does a 'nie' cause the direct object to take the genitive case? With mężczyzny, it is irregular, so it has a feminine negative ending, but a masculine article?

[Latcarf]

Yes, a negated verb causes the direct object to be in the genitive case. And indeed, mężczyzna is masculine (so it takes a masculine article) but declinates like a feminine noun.

[silmeth]

Not article but a demonstrative pronoun, Polish does not have articles. ;-) But yes, mężczyzna does decline similarly to feminine nouns in singular but nonetheless is masculine noun and takes masculine pronouns and adjectives.

[soderdaen]

What would it be in plural? -> I do not see that men

[Jellei]

Firstly, the plural in English would need to be "I do not see those men".

And in Polish, "Nie widzę tamtych mężczyzn".

[JagoMol]

I believe that 'panna' should be accepted as 'mezczyny' because the context is the same

[Okcydent]

panna - young (usually) and unmarried women

To be correct it should be "pana", and I would accept it but English sentence doesn't show any special kind of respect.

[Jellei]

Added "pana".