"That woman is bad."

Translation:Tamta kobieta jest zła.

December 22, 2015

This discussion is locked.


why can't it be 'the woman is angry'?


Is there different times you use the ł as sometimes i see zły and other times i see źle, why the difference as both mean bad?


Well, you just use different forms. "zły" is the masculine adjective, right? And then there are different forms: "zła" (feminine), "złe" (neuter singular and 'not masculine-personal plural)' and "źli" (masculine personal plural). The masculine personal form is usually quite different from the other ones, it's kinda... softened. "źle" is the adverb and clearly it's more similar to the masculine personal form here.


How would a person be able to distinguish if the woman here is bad or angry or evil?


Frankly, "angry" seems the most probable for me. Then "evil" could use some word to strengthen the message, even like "Ta kobieta jest po prostu zła" = This woman is simply evil.

As for "bad"... I have to say that I'm not sure what exactly it would convey in this sentence.


Why is 'Tamta kobieta to zła' wrong?


You can only use the construction with "to" if you have nouns/noun phrases on both sides. So e.g. "That woman is a bad woman" could potentially be "Tamta kobieta to zła kobieta".

Here, you just have a standalone adjective, so you need to use "jest".


Why is the nominative "zła" used instead of the instrumental "złą" in "That woman is bad", but the instrumental is used in "Tamta kobieta jest amerykanką" for "That woman is American"?


Note that "Amerykanką" should be written with a capital letter, because it's a noun (meaning "an American woman/girl"). Nouns denoting nationalities (so nouns for people) are written with a capital letter, adjectives are not ("an American car" = "amerykański samochód").

Now that we know it's a noun, that's exactly where the difference is. A noun phrase takes the Instrumental case in such a sentence, a standalone adjective (as here) stays unchanged, which usually means that it takes Nominative.

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