"It is a good question."
Translation:To dobre pytanie.
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With jest in the sentence, why is it not pytaniem, in the instrumental case?
I think it's because "question" isn't used to define another noun in this phrase, nor a person. Hope someone will correct me if that's not right.
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To and to jest is used in a similar manner. But if the verb is jest (without to), then the noun following takes the instrumental case
Both work, "To dobre pytanie" just seems more idiomatic. It's hard to say though, when the sentence sounds better without 'jest'. I guess it's more like a remark than actually saying 'what it is'.
i'm not being allowed to write 'jest dobrym pytaniem' - have i got this wrong?
Yes, that doesn't make much sense. Sentences like "It is Y" are constructed as "To jest" + Nominative.
they are, aren’t they. dude you must spend so much time answering the most basic questions on here, i see you everywhere! i wanted to say, you do an absolutely fantastic job moderating this forum, so kudos. and thankyou.
