Would it be correct to think of U and WEDLUG as equivalent to CHEZ and SELON in French?
I really couldn't understand the audio. It didn't sound like "Według" to me
Would "It's fine by me" convey the same meaning? If so perhaps it should be considered a correct (and less convoluted) translation.
I asked around and got an answer that "It's fine by me" is more in the direction of "I am going to allow/accept it", and this is not what the Polish sentence says. The Polish sentence would be used for example if your children asked you whether their maths homework is done well, and you look at their notebooks and everything seems to be correct. Or the dough for the cake seems alright. Or the room is already clean enough for the arrival of the guests. So it's more of "I think it's okay".
My opinion is good: You said that your opinion is good
In my opinion, it is good: There is something good and you think it is good. Your expectation of goodness is for something else and you mention it through your opinion.
Both are completely different
Of course they're different: that's why I asked if the Polish phrase could have two different meanings. (I'm clear now that it can't). How DO you say in Polish "My opinion is good" - i.e. "I am right"?
Well, if you wanted to translate "My opinion is good" literally, that's "Moja opinia jest dobra", but that's rather a weird phrase.
"I am right" translates to "Mam rację".
"rozumiem" :) Unless you wrote it on purpose, some people write it that way jokingly.
"według" and "mnie" are taken together, so would also be linked to "tego" etc. to indicate opinions of other people? (według tego ... in his opinion)
"in his opinion" is "według niego" (the n- forms of pronouns like 'jego' or 'jej' are used after prepositions).
'według tego człowieka' would be 'in this man's opinion'.
without the pronoun jest can mean he is good. That is a logical translation.
Then it would be "dobry" (for 'he'). "dobrze" is an adverb. So "it" (= 'some situation', 'something discussed') is fine.
Can anyone help explain when to use 'To jest' , 'Jest' or 'To' to mean 'It is' ? Because I've seen all three used to mean 'It is'.
"To jest" and "To" could both be used in a sentence like "[It/This/That] is Y". Although not always "To" itself will sound naturally.
In this sentence, it's a bit different, the 'it' is more of a dummy pronoun, not referring to anything specific. That's why 'jest' can work without any subject. But I'd say it's not the most common situation.