"There is no meat in my refrigerator."

Translation:W mojej lodówce nie ma mięsa.

January 1, 2016

11 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/conor.raff

Very good sentence for learning: 2x cases at play here

1) "mięsa" is in the genitive because of this rule (which I completely missed)

For the complement of the negative existential constructions "nie ma" (there isn’t), "nie było" (there wasn’t), and "nie bdzie" (there won’t be)

Swan, Oscar (2008-10-12). Polish Verbs Essentials of Grammar, Second Edition (Verbs and Essentials of Grammar Series) (Kindle Locations 315-317). McGraw-Hill Education. Kindle Edition.

2) "lodówce" is in the locative because of w (+ loc.) = in, at. I figured this case ok, but I put down "lodówca". The root word "lodówca" is feminine, feminine locative is the same as fem. dat. And the rule there is a) soften stem consonant (which I did: k - c) b) ending becomes "e" (which I forgot)

February 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/JaniceSchl1

Thank you!

December 4, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/werjany

Nie ma mięsa w mojej lodówce also should be accepted.

January 1, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/aGABT31

I would agree, if only because the reply Duolingo uses is so tortured. Your suggestion conveys the meaning more clearly, and is more direct in content and more natural than "in my fridge there is no meat". Maybe Polish people are so used to this 'strange' way of phrasing the idea that they don't notice it, but it does feel very awkward to an English speaker.

January 16, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

That version is accepted as well.

The versions depend on what you find most important in your sentence - it then (usually) goes at the end. So "W mojej lodówce nie ma mięsa" just states the fact. "Nie ma mięsa w mojej lodówce" sounds okay, but it puts the emphasis on the exact place where there is no meat (and probably, the meat must have been mentioned before).

January 17, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Captn4wesome

Is there a reason, why 'nie jest mięsa' is not accepted (since is = jest)?

December 16, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

Mostly because it's just wrong. While it looks quite illogical if you think about it, the Polish equivalent of "there is not" is "nie ma", literally "there has not".

December 17, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/PinkHill552

BTW, strange is, that English "no meat" should mean in Polish "žadnego mięsa" - or not ?

January 2, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

"żaden" and its forms aren't that easy to translate into English. Generally sure, "żadnego mięsa" would be correct here (added now), but it's like 'absolutely no meat', it gives more emphasis. Or perhaps as if someone claimed that you have meat in your fridge and you corrected them by saying there isn't any.

January 2, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Jan.K.M

Just want to verify something. If instead of 'ma' we use 'mam' that would still be a valid sentence, albeit with a slightly different meaning 'I have no meat in my refrigerator'. Correct?

February 10, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei

Correct :)

February 11, 2019
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