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  5. "Kogo widzisz?"

"Kogo widzisz?"

Translation:Who do you see?

January 3, 2016

23 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RadhaTereska

Though this is not a site for English - isn't Who do you see actually not grammatically correct. "who" is the object so it should be in the objective case or is this a modern thing.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/vytah

"Whom" is getting less and less popular with time, and many English learners are not aware of its existence: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Who_%28pronoun%29#Tendency_to_replace_whom_with_who


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ianr87

Yes, only "whom do you see should be correct." I'm guessing duolingo included who as a correct answer because of common usage. Or so English-speakers wouldn't get a Polish translation question wrong for their English error.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gbaldacci1309

But how is one to translate, correctly, if we speak it incorrectly in English. It is one thing to just "memorize" the cases. However, I believe "kogo" should always be translated to "whom" so if it spoken, correctly, in English, then the person knows to translate it back to "kogo" in Polish, when needed. "Who" is for when it is the subject. "Whom" is for when it is object. Most people speaking English say this, incorrectly. It is improper use of grammar.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/strawberry923633

I am not sure if this is what you ask about but this is not a subject question. Subject question would be: who sees you? (kto cię widzi?) and it has completely different meaning. In the the sentence above you don't ask about the subject but you just ask sb else.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ash473779

To Grace Marie baldacci -

Whence is thou from? Why no speaketh thy tongue as we spoketh in yesteryear?

Language evolves. 'Whom' is now pretty archaic. 'Who' is correct here .


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gbaldacci1309

"whom" is not archaic. It is the word, in English, that should be used when it is the object. Period. The language is butchered. It is not different than saying "Me and him are going to the store" ...which MANY people say when speaking English, today...instead of the correct way, "he and I are going to the store". It is NOT archaic. The language is being butchered.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ash473779

But I would argue that languages change all the time, always have done, always will do, and the trend seems to be to lose much of the case system with some bonified PIE languages (Welsh, Italian, Spanish, English). I get that English was standardised with 'whom' as an object/accusative case version of the subject/nominative 'who' but it was also standardised the pronunciation of the 'gh' in such words like 'night' as a hard 'ch'/'kh' sound (such as Scottish 'LoCH', the K sound in words like 'knight', 'knob', know' was also voiced, unlike our pronunciation today, and many others. We don't say 'whence' anymore but instead 'from where'. People are going to say 'who do you like' instead of 'whom do you like' but as long as we understand exactly what they mean, then our language is working perfectly well. Afrikaans / Cape Dutch lost all its cases in its modern form, a speaker would say "give it to I", but the language works just as functionally as English and many speakers would be offended if someone called their language 'butchered'.

With the way things are going, 'whom', while being grammatically correct, will go the way of 'thine', and while it would be considered absolutely correct to use this single 2nd person determiner in place of the formal singular/ plural 2nd person 'your', it would be seen as socially archaic.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Tine175312

While I think that can be nice to have a formal distinction in order to make sentences easier to understand, I fully agree with what you said, Ash473779. Very nicely put.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DebbyTeresa

Allow me to correct you. In Afrikaans one would say , 'n vertaaling is " Gee dit vir my" not "gee dit vir ek"= 'Give it to me' not 'give it to I'. ie: Simple nom. and acc. cases. (and it's never called 'Cape Dutch'). Tutors, please accept my apologies for deviating from the Polish lesson.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Christoffe268716

There is no such thing as butchering a language. That's how they evolve natutally. Always have.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Joe309995

I prefer to speak and write grammatically-correct English, however I do realize that the language is becoming much more informal and many aspects are changing. Not only do people no longer say "Whom," but I notice that adverbs are disappearing. Many people now say "Drive safe" instead of "drive safely." My son's English teacher here in British Columbia looked at him with disbelief when he used the word whilst.
I think part of the reason is the change in our schools. The lower grades are no longer Grammar School but simply Elementary Schools....VERY ELEMENTARY. Neither of my children have ever diagrammed a sentence.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/4kidsandacat

May we just take a moment to appreciate the use of the word whilst? Never see that anymore. And i love it!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/raconteur

you love that you don't see it anymore? kidding, me too. another such word is amongst, (and midst too i guess) which i still use for effect. interesting.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paula531833

Just because the vast majority of people don’t say whom doesn’t mean it isn’t proper English. Many people in the US speak very poor English.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/4kidsandacat

Not just the US, I'm afraid. I've heard dreadful English usage in the UK as well.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paula531833

Whom is CORRECT...not archaic


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KVRMx

Hmmmm? I guess the "bug" strikes again? ... I entered : "who (without a capital W ) do you see" ( and admittedly, without the question mark (?) at the end of the sentence) and it was rejected.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jellei

Neither capitalization nor interpunction is assessed, so yes, sounds like the bug :|


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/nathanjm

I'm working on understanding Polish grammar and thought I would share my thought process as it may help others, and to check if my understanding is correct.

  • Kogo (pronoun) is used because ‘who’ is the direct object, therefore we use accusative.
  • Widzisz (verb) is used because we are talking in the 2nd person singular (you) in the present tense.

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BatyaMatzk

I saw "do kogo" translated as "to whom", so can't "kogo" be both who and whom?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jellei

"kogo" generally is 'whom' (I mean that this way you can see better how the grammar works), but it seems that more native speakers use 'who' than 'whom' nowadays. Anyway, both "Who" and "Whom" are correct answers here.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/4kidsandacat

Exactly what i came here to find out. Thanks for the clarification.

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