Could someone give me a literal translation of this sentence? Why is the verb "ma" (she has) rather than "jest" (she is)? Shouldn't it be "Tej pani nie jest w domu"? Or maybe "W domu nie jest tej pani"?
literal Eng-Pol translation is "Ta Pani nie jest w domu", grammatically correct sentence that is rarely used. (It means more "the place where she is is not home")
Literal Pols-Eng translation is "it does not have this lady at home", which does not make sence.
It is a phrase "Nie ma"+ a person/thing "missing" in genitive+ location
I understood this as "this lady does not have a home" because I thought "ma" referred to the lady. I guess the more literal translation is "this home does not have a lady" which = "this lady is not home"
You were close, if it was Nominative (Ta pani) this would indeed be "This lady does not have a home".
I'd say "There is not (or even 'There has not') this lady in the house" to be the most literal translation.
The lady here is in Genitive. If it was a less surprising sentence about lack of... vegatables, or a computer, in the house - that would still be Genitive.
What about this word order: "W domu nie ma tej pani", translated roughly as "In home there is not this lady"?
Sounds strange. It is correct sentence, but this word order is uncommon. Usually the sentence "w domu nie ma" is about something missing/lacking in the house/home like salt, tomatoes, heating, love. so in order for this sentence to have sense "this lady" has to be a specific member of your houshold, your stepmom probably.
This was a great post for me. I can now wrap my head around the translation and now sentence makes sense to me. I realize that the word order does not work so that I need to say it the way it is written in answer at top. However, this post allowed me to "get it". Thank you!!!
Anyone who speaks Spanish here for helping me to understand this sentence? I read the explanations in English but even so, I don't understand well.
Just to clarify... (because I know "w" can sound like either an f or an english v), it is pronounced [v dɔmu] because the "d" is a voiced consonant?
I believe it is :) Examples: wtorek = ftorek (t is voiceless), czwartek = tʃvartek (because any vowel is voiced), w domu = v domu (d is voiced)