"No, I am drinking water."

Translation:Nie, piję wodę.

January 6, 2016

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I don't really understand why the ending of some words changes... so far I've noticed it changes only in words finishing in "a" (feminine?), but is there a rule? Is this a grammatical case?


you need accusative /biernik after pić/piję.

Neuter and masculine not animated words happen to have same nominative and accusative forms while masculine animated (but you don't drink those, usually) and feminine nouns change


Are personal pronouns optional?


I wanted to write a reply, but Duolingo has this covered here: https://www.duolingo.com/skill/pl/Basics-2

Omitting pronouns

In Polish, a sentence where the pronoun has been omitted is still perfectly grammatical.

When talking about yourself, you usually skip the ja pronoun, unless you want to emphasize something. The same goes for all 1st and 2nd person pronouns.

This is because of the way conjugation works. The verb forms used with 1st and 2nd person pronouns are unique for these pronouns. Even if you omit the pronoun, the verb still reveals who is the person performing the action, so there is no need to mention it explicitly.

However, omitting 3rd person pronouns may not always be appropriate. Generally, you only skip them if the context makes it clear who you are referring to.

As there are separate 3rd person pronouns for different genders, they contain information about the gender of the subject that cannot be in any way deduced from the form of the verb.

Consequently, 3rd person pronouns cannot be ommited in sentences where the gender of the pronoun is used to differentiate between subjects, such as On je jabłko, a ona je chleb (He is eating an apple and she is eating bread).

I'd add that omitting 3rd person is more often used in past and future tenses where you can deduce gender from a verb form, and that in the last example also, other pronouns should not be skipped (she eats an apple I eat bread- Ona je jabłko, ja (jem) chleb.


Nie jestem piję wodę, is not acceptable here?


That is an equivalent of "No I am I drink water". It makes exactly zero sense.

Don't think of the Present Continuous construction ('to be verb-ing') as something that actually contains any real 'to be'. It doesn't. It's just a construction. It's just one verb. You cannot translate 'to be'.


Jellei , if jestem means “i am” and pije means “i drink” then how would u write “ no, im drinking water” ? nie pije wode would just mean “ no i drink water” whats the point of introducing jestem then.


"how would u write “ no, im drinking water” ?" - You don't. In Polish there is no difference between "I'm drinking water" and "I drink water".


One of the options was I drink a pickle


Why is the conjugation of "I drink" and "he drinks" or "she drinks" the same (pije), when with other verbs there is a seperate conjugation for "I" i.e., "I like" is lubie but "she likes" is lubi or "I am" is jestem and "she is" is je. Why does pije not change?


Becbon88 , thats bc “like”is a verb and noun and adjective , whereas drink is mostly a noun and sometimes used as verb , idk tbh there are few exceptions in polish this is one of it lol.


The conjugation does change: I drink - Piję, he/she/it drinks - pije.

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