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  5. "Już tego nie mam."

"Już tego nie mam."

Translation:I do not have it anymore.

January 6, 2016



Duolingo claims that my correct UK English

"I don't have this any more."

has an extra space in "any more".

In UK English there is no word "anymore", though it is used in the US, where "any more" may indeed be incorrect.


Added "any more".


Any more refers to quantities, (Would you like any more tea?) so "any more" in this case would be incorrect.


'Any more' in UK English means the same as the adverb 'anymore' in US English, in addition to its 'any more tea' usage.



Yet "anymore" and "any more" are not interchangeable ... https://www.grammarly.com/blog/anymore-vs-any-more/

Are there actual examples to the contrary?


No, they're not interchangeable within either American or British English because in American English the two words/phrases have different meanings while in British English they're not interchangeable because 'anymore' isn't used at all.

Grammerly is an American site.



Thank you :-) Now I understand ... finally ;-)


Its called English, no such thing as UK English.


Well, I agree that it's called English, but there are certainly differences in the usage between UK and US, so there has to be a way to label those two versions of English, to be able to distingush them. No reason to be offended by a (practical) label.

  • "It's …" = It is … [the correct contraction here]
  • Its = belonging to it.

Though British children learn the important your/you're, its/it's and their/they're distinctions at school, surprisingly many native speakers/writers confuse these homophones. The most common written mistake is to switch its/it's, probably because ...'s looks like a Saxon genitive, the possessive ending of a noun (a noun's possessive ending ).

For more ⇒ my [FAQ] Do your, you're and you are all mean the same?

[16 Nov 2020 10:03 UTC]    This Comment's URL for App users:


I generally comment that you don't write "hi's" so you shouldn't write "it's" in the parallel case.


I like that: it could help some English speakers.

Though I've thankfully never seen "hi's" out in the wild, "her's" is horribly common, mostly on clothing-store window posters around sales time:


    HIS and HER'S

 30% Off all regular prices!


"I do not have it any longer."—This should be an acceptable translation.


Agreed.... (if you're still around)


Could it also mean "I don't have this yet"?


not that is opposite of what it means. That would be "jeszcze tego nie mam"


I hate the z in Polish when sometimes it has a dot over it or a sloping line .( when is it pointing left or right?) Can someone tell me the difference? None of my relations in Poland can explain any difference, and just tell me not to worry about it.


Well, that's weird, because it's not 'something not to worry about it', it's a completely different letter that makes a completely different sound...

Ż (Z with a dot) can be written in English as ZH. In Polish, "Ż" and "RZ" make exactly the same sound.

Ź (Z with an 'accent') is a palatalized Z. It's hard to compare the palatalized sounds to English, but there are many such sounds in Polish (Ć, Ń, Ś, Ź, DŹ).

One problem with Duolingo is that with this font they're quite hard to distinguish at first look.


Palatized, meaning you hit your palate, or the roof of your mouth, when you speak the word? And, sorry, how does one pronounce rz, --uhrjuh?


I'm bad with phonetics, so I may have oversimplified things a bit. Ź is a voiced alveolo-palatal sibilant fricative. See here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voiced_alveolo-palatal_fricative

Not sure what you mean... the uhrjuh thing looks as if you tried to say "rz" just like you were saying the alphabet... then that's "er-zet". But the sound it makes is identical to Ż. Quoting Wikipedia, Ż represents the voiced retroflex fricative [ʐ], somewhat similar to the pronunciation of ⟨g⟩ in "mirage".

  • 1229

Is "I don't have it already" wrong?


Yes. In most contexts that would be a slightly odd way of saying 'I do not have it yet'; it wouldn't mean 'I do not have it anymore.'


What would one write for "I have no more/do not have anymore of this"?

I wrote the former :-( (?)


Nie mam już więcej.- I have this much and no more

Nie mam tego więcej. - I have no more of this


If you have it, you have this. If you don't have it, I don't have that anymore sounds more plausible. Based on my being a printer for a college for seventeen years.


How would you say 'I do not have it anymore'


The same. this/that/it - all of those are dummy pronouns in such a sentence and all of those are good translation of Polish. "it" is accepted.


I concur with Robin, any similarity between proper English and what we speak in the states is purely accidental.


To each his own, in English we say a rooster goes cock a doodle doo, My mom in Polish said Kook a ryk koo. I don't have the letter on my keyboard but it's the u sound.


Kukuryku is spelled with the regular u, not the ó.


"Już nie mam tego." Taki szyk nie wydaje się błędny. Czy się mylę?


Już is what my wife says when I fill a glass up to say no more.


That's true, we could say that it means "enough" then.


Is there a reason "I do not still have it" shouldn't make sense here?


Still is used only in positive sentences: I still have it = Wciąż to mam.

In negative sentences, still changes to not … any more:

I do not have it any more.

In Polish Ja to wciąż mam changes into Ja tego już nie mam.


Perhaps in a context-neutral sense, but, if I wanted to emphasise the negativity, I would find it quite natural to use "still" like this. Something like "Surely he wouldn't keep it for so long?" "No, he doesn't still have it, that would be ridiculous." sounds appropriate to me.


"Już" is then never used with the meaning of "yet", so only with the meaning of "anymore"?


In declarative sentences: "already".

In negative sentences: "anymore".

In questions: "yet".

As in the examples here: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/ju%C5%BC#Adverb


Why is "I don't have it any longer" wrong?


I would say you pronounce it as you would the word burrs.


No: then you're pronouncing rz as two separate letters.

To quote Jellei and Wikipedia:

rz = ż, "somewhat similar to the pronunciation of ⟨g⟩ in mirage".


There are exceptions to the pronunciation of the cluster rz:

zmarznąć = to freeze (and its derivatives) is pronounced with two consecutive consonants r and z. The same pertains to Tarzan, but this is a foreign-origin word.


Fascinating … and confusing (except for the logic of foreign-origin words). Hopefully, such exceptions are rare.

Is zmar|znąć perhaps a compound word, where …r|z… meet by accident?


The word marznąć (zmarznąć is its perfective form) has an old slavic origin "mŕ̥znǫti", meaning to freeze or to crust and in Russian it became "заморозить" (zamorozit'), with a vowel "o" separating r and z. In Czech it became "zmrazit." It actually reminded me now that there is a derivative that puts the vowel "o" between r and z in Polish as well: zamrozić (= to make freeze solid) and zmrozić (= to put in a freezer for a moment), which look like the Russian and Czech verbs, respectively. So our pronunciation is dictated by the derivatives.

Ready for more confusion?

Zamarzać = to become frozen, zamarzanie = freezing are exceptions in the meaning of becoming ice. In the meaning related to starving/starvation to death, they are pronounced with rz = ż.

Rozmarzać = to thaw, rozmarzanie = thawing are exceptions in the meaning of thawing. In the meaning related to dreaming/daydreaming, they are pronounced normally, with the rz = ż.

Other exceptions: mier|znąć = to disgust and its derivatives, e.g., obmier|zły = disgusting.

Words composed with the prefixes (cyber-, hiper-, super-), since these are foreign-origin prefixes: cyberzwierzątko, hiperzespolony, hiperzwolennik, superzabawa, superzbiornikowiec.

There are also more foreign-origin words, in particular: erzac (erzatz) and mirza.

See the Wiktionary for more fun exceptions to other Polish digraphs.

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