Que Benicio del Toro había dicho a Johnny Depp en la habitación del hotel en Las Vegas.
Or as Lacroix said to Nicholas in the last episode of Forever Knight, as Natalie lay dead on the floor. :'(
'Lo que Benicio del Toro le dijo a Johnny Depp en la habitación del hotel en Las Vegas'
Depending on the context, this could of course be applied to consuming too much alcohol or too much of a substance, but it is most apt to simply say "You've had too much," in my opinion.
"Have drank" is grammatically incorrect in standard American English, regardless of what part of the country you are in.
"Your" is also grammatically incorrect to use when you mean "you are". The contraction is "you're".
It is more common to use the contraction "you're", but "you are" is not incorrect.
I clearly dont know English as I put "drunk" not "drank".. for those that also do the same mistake..
drank is the simple past tense:
"I drank the wine yesterday."
drunk is the past participle, used in the perfect and pluperfect tenses of the verb.
"I had drunk the wine before you arrived."
I wrote "you have drank too much"... Am i gramatically incorrect in english?
"You drank" is past tense. Present perfect (which is what is being used here) is "have drunk." You may not grammatically say "have drank."
It would be "you have drunk", but to confuse you, in a different tense, you would put "you drank". You might encounter "have drank" in archaic language.
Luis, that is just too simple minded for us DL learners. We like to make things complicated. You must know that by now :)
Can you say "You have taken too long" or as in "You have taken too much time" as an English translation?
I'm a native English speaker and I really struggle with drank vs. drunk (not to mention"dranken/drunken LOL). I put "You've drank to much" and was marked wrong. I understand that this is not "proper" English but does anyone else think this is a who vs whom situation where the modern colloquial English should be accepted? As in, duo usually will accept "who" as an English translation even when in proper English the correct translation should be "whom".
I think this is an instance where language is changing very quickly. Strong verbs (the ones that are conjugated by changes in the vowels and sometimes the consonants, rather than by adding "-ed" to the end of the word) seem to be transitioning rather rapidly to weak verbs.
This has been underway for a while. Generally, both strong and weak conjugations of these verbs are acceptable now, but I notice more and more that writers (including reporters for major newspapers and the like) are using weak conjugations rather than strong.
"To drink" is a partial exception. The strong conjugations (in this case, drink/drank/have drunk) are still the only "correct" form. A while ago, my sister, a university professor, noted that while her students were not using the strong conjugations of many verbs anymore, this tended to occur mostly with verbs that they would be likely to use infrequently - so that, for instance spin/spun/have spun has become spin/spinned/spinned.
My sister, said, however, that her students were having no trouble with drink/drank/have drunk. Based not only on your comment, but anecdotal info from another, relatively youngish, person, I think that is changing. We will probably eventually end up with drink/drinked/drinked, but right now there seems to be uncertainty about how to conjugate "to drink."
Personally, I think this is a pity, as I like strong verbs and their anomalous conjugations. Language does change, however, and we need, eventually, to change with it.
Because "tomar" can mean either. Words in different languages do not map onto each other one-to-one.
Nevertheless, there's a somewhat parallel English usage - we usually "take" medicine, rather than "drinking" or "swallowing" it.
Wouldn't "you have had too much to drink" work since we don't have other context?