"Ele não fala desde o jantar."

Translation:He does not speak since dinner.

December 15, 2013

12 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/helen.gray1

The more correct English would be "he hasn't spoken since dinner."

July 18, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/jairapetyan

Yes, absolutely. The literal translation becomes incorrect grammar in English. I wonder if this is the same in the reverse tree, that is, are they teaching a mistake to learners of English?

November 11, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Robleh100

But that would be 'ele nao tem fala desde o jantar'. This section is not set to evaluate this more complex tense.

April 15, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Vulcanman

I'm not sure I get this sentence even in English. What is it saying?

June 28, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/jairapetyan

They were trying to say that he hasn't spoken since dinner. Something happened at dinner to offend him and he hasn't spoken since then.

November 11, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/RedAndGreen

why isn't "since the dinner" and acceptable phrasing?

December 15, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/Duomail

"He hasn't spoken since the dinner" is accepted.

August 18, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/RichardCle230587

There's a slight difference of meaning when you use the definite article. "He hasn't spoken since the dinner" carries a connotation that this was a special dinner - a dinner party, celebration meal etc. "Since dinner" means since that (routine) meal. Put in other words, "since dinner" = he hasn't spoken since having (since he had) dinner. "Since the dinner"= "he hasn't spoken since he was at (he attended) the dinner.

November 8, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/AsaCross16

Now to correct this sentance would be He has not spoken since dinner time

December 19, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Taekwondopig

is there a difference between to have been speaking and to have spoken in portuguese in this case is there any reason has been speaking is rejected over has spoken. Also in no context here would anyone english say he isn't speaking since dinner, it's not something that directly translates like that

November 11, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/blaineskrainka

"He does not speak since dinner" is technically okay, but it would never be used in colloquial English.

January 26, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/clicketykeys

I'm gonna disagree here. For an action that started in the past and continues without interruption until the present, English uses the present perfect - in this case, "has (not) spoken."

Edit to add: That's not to say that it's not useful as a lesson, because it helps the student learn that Portuguese uses a different tense to get this idea across.

March 23, 2016
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