"Finalement c'est assez facile à faire."
Translation:After all, it is pretty easy to do.
The English translation used here has me questioning the meaning of the French phrase. Let's say I've been practicing a dance step, which I couldn't do at first, but after weeks of working hard at it, I can do it well. Then I'd say, "Finally (or "At last"), it is easy enough (or "fairly easy") to do." Contrast that with a discussion about which dance step to choose for a bit of choreography — some dancers were having trouble with one step, so the choreographer suggests an alternative, and explains his reasoning by saying, "After all, it is pretty easy to do."
Those two statements have quite different meanings, and I suspect that a more accurate version would be "at last" or "finally", rather than "after all", which (in my English dialect, at least) does not usually connote the passage of time.
In french, the meaning of "Finalement, c'est assez facile a faire" is more like "ohh I thought that it would be difficult, but finally it's pretty easy to do". You can believe me, i'm a native french speaker :)
In an informal setting could I say "c'est assez facile" for "it's easy enough" or does the French construction require "a faire" to make sense?
Why is it that something is "impossible de faire" but "facile à faire" ? Can somebody explain the contrasting preposition for this case?
Usually, if it's just the adjective on its own "Impossible de faire" it's de - the same as if it uses il "Il est impossible de faire" but if it uses ce, most of the time it uses à "C'est facile à faire".
Only because the thing that is easy to do is not mentioned after and also because of the use of the word "c'est". For example, if you're talking with a friend about making donuts, you will say "[des beignes], C'EST facile À faire" but you can also say "IL est facile DE faire des beignes".
What about saying "Il est facile à faire'' or ''C'est facile à faire des beignes''?
The English expression is "easy enough". Otherwise that should be fine.