"Mam tylko jednego cukierka."
Translation:I have only one candy.
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In polish wikipedia, it says cukierkek is a
"rzeczownik, rodzaj męskorzeczowy"
....i.e. a "noun, of type męskorzeczowy"
where "męskorzeczowy" appears to mean "masculine-inanimate" (according to my humble translation skills)....
Just a case of the entry being wrong, or have I mistranslated?
In WSJP.pl its marked as of type m2, m3
"część mowy: rzeczownik rodzaj gramatyczny: m2, m3"
I looked up lekarz (m1) and psa (m2) to deduce that m1 = personal, m2 = animate (but not personal), so m3 must mean non-animate?
So it appears WSJP.pl is saying that it can be both animate and inanimate. Correct?
ASIDE: Immery, where is that PDF you linked to that defined these terms for WSJP.pl (m1,m2,m3 etc.) ? (I'm at a different PC today, i have it open on my laptop at home lol)
cukierek is in the "it's complicated" category with pomidor, kotlet and many more. We are experiencing a shift in declension pattern of those nouns, so depending on the person speaking and situation accusative can take = nominative or =genitive.
I think "mam tylko jeden cukierek" is a good translation, but I would never say it.
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As a native British English speaker, I don't usually have any problems with American English. The differences are generally well known and easily understandable but this sentence sounds really weird. Do Americans really say "I only have one candy" and does it mean what we call a sweet or can it be chocolate as well? Mam tylko jednego cukierka sounds less foreign to me but hey, I guess the UK and US will always remain friends divided by a common language
Somewhere in this morass we have overlooked communication, regardless of presentation or local use to describe candy or whatever it's called there we have gotten into a peeing contest over terminology. If you want it done right, do it yourself, if you want chaos, give it to a committee. Sounds like we have one here.
Language is extremely fluid, the English I spoke in school seventy years ago is considered archaic in these times. Fifty years from now , we not be able to understand what is being said using today's terminology. We've gone from communication to dissecting to prove our grasp of it and in the process lost what Winston Churchill said abut communicating. Legalese is one of the biggest problems, say it in such a way that the unwashed and those sans a college degree don't understand. It's easier to take advantage of them that way. Common sense and a formal ninth grade education speaking.
No normal British person would ever use the word confectionary in day to day language, that's even less common than they'd use candy, despite all the exposure to american English. All I've heard my entire life is a "a sweet" "sweets" "a sweet shop" "bag of sweets" etc.
Can I respectfully suggest "I have only one lolly" should be accepted as an alternative translation?
There are many native speakers of English who are not North American and who would never say "one candy". For two reasons.
First, in some English speaking countries, the word "candy" is not in general use. It might be understood from watching American films and TV, but that's about all. "Lolly" is the more common informal or conversational term, and "sweet" the more formal term.
Secondly, to the extent that "candy" is known or used, it is not a countable noun. So "one candy" sounds strange.
It be difficult to come up with translations that work for all the different varieties of English.