I do not hear the questions.
I do not hear any questions.
These two sentences above sound better in English than "I do not hear questions."
The first one. The speaker expects/hopes for some questions, but no one asks them.
Or the speaker just has bad hearing.
If that's the case then "i do not hear questions" is a bad english translation. If they haven't been asked any questions it should be "i don't hear any questions", otherwise it sounds like they are incapable of hearing questions in general
OK, I will put "any questions" in the main answer, although it's problematic as I can't put "żadnych" in the main Polish sentence, it hasn't been introduced yet at this point.
Ive seen zanych in previous questions thats why i got this wrong actually
How does this translate to "any questions" ....where is the word for "any"? Or is this one of those translations where we are supposed to guess that a word is there even though there is not any representation?
"any" in English is used a lot more often than its Polish equivalent (forms of "żaden"). We use this word in Polish to stress the 'not even one' part. But yeah, this could potentially be "Nie słyszę żadnych pytań".
The English main answer used to be "I do not hear questions", but there were too many comments stating that it's not natural without 'any', so we changed it.
You do not have to put it, it's accepted without it, it's just that too many people complained that "I do not hear questions" without "any" isn't exactly the most natural English sentence.
Cases never have anything to do with gender! It's Genitive because "słyszeć" (to hear) takes Accusative, and it's negated here, so it needs Genitive then.
Change order is like that: [SOV]. You choose:
subject. Subject is noun - it have gender.
-if you want to emphasize it or not
verb. Verb have aspect.
do you want a resultat of your action
what "time" you mean (present, past, future)
ending of verb depends on the subject:
- plural, person, gender (past tenses)
- ending of the noun depends on the verb
type of preposition
correlation (Verb --> Noun)
direct/not direct object
- ending of the pronoun, numerals, adjective depends on the case of the noun.
The most important thing when you are learning Slavic languages is to KNOW with which prepositions and cases VERB connect and which gender have noun - it's not universal true, for e.g.
pies (m.) - собака (f) - a dog
drzwi (PL) - дверь (f) - a door
jechać (+I.) autobusem (m.) - ехать на (+L.) автобусе (m.) - to go by bus
oglądać (+A.) telewizję (f.) - смотреть (+A) телевизор (m.) - to watch TV
zachorować na (+A.) grypę (f.) - заболевать (+I.) гриппом (m.) - to get sick with the flu
The context can be like, "Is there any question? Since, I do not hear any question, we can move on with the lecture."
"any" can work both with singular and plural, and "pytań" is Genitive plural.
This is gówno. Where is "zadnych" in the question because in the "correct" English answer, we have "any".
"I dont hear the questions" must be accepted.
It is. But people complained that the sentence isn't really natural without "any". Sometimes there isn't necessarily a 1:1 translation.
"żadnych" is accepted.
The fact that something wasn't the way you expected it, or even if it was actually wrong, doesn't mean you can use vulgar words.
Vulgar words, LOL. I don't remember a whole lot of my Grandparents Polish, but I remember THAT one. I am 3rd generation Polish in the USA, so my parents spoke mostly English at home. But not my grandparents, they only spoke English when I had friends over so as not to be rude in front of the quests. But, if they really didn't want you to know what they were talking about, they spoke only in Polish.