19 Comments
Thank you for all the comments. Although raised in the US, Polish was my first language and the only language I ever spoke with my parents (for 60 years!) I find that there are words in Polish which instill a particular feeling in me that any translation of the word into English cannot do. Tęskni/ tęsknota is one of those words. Perhaps because both my parents had such a strong attachment to the motherland and could not return. The translation "misses" just doesn't do justice. "Longing for" and "homesick" are better (but not equal). Language conveys a cultural paradigm. I never try to translate verbatim.
Often 'longing' seems too much, but in this sentence... both your answers seem suitable. Added "longing", "homesick" worked already.
Well, Duolingo has certain restrictions which actually favour verbatim translation if only it's correct and natural enough...
Yes, I think tęskni is a better translation. Lepiej sie zmieszcza w formie zdania i też odmiana sie na rzeczownik - tęsknota/longing
Btw, the main meaning of 'za' is 'behind', right? How do you say then 'he is yearning (for something) (while being) behind the house'? =) On tęskni będąc za domem?
I feel that could be confused with, "he longs to be behind the house" (though I think that should by być) maybe "Będąc za domem, on tęskni" would be better
I think there is no such a smooth word as "homesick" in Polish. So as an adjective it would be "tęskniący/stęskniony za domem", as a noun "homesickness": "tęsknota za domem".
I dont really understand this sentence... why is a "his" there even if you had not used "jego"?
'his' is only an accepted option here. But anyway, it could also easily be the main English sentence, and Polish still wouldn't really need "jego" (or rather "swoim" which would be better). Why? Well, it seems safe to assume that one misses their own home. So if that is the case, there is not a slightest need to specify that in Polish. If he was missing his brother's house, then we would have to specify it.
Oh! And is this appliable for every otehr verb in Polish. I mean, you always assume that? Or does this only happen with the verb "to miss"?
Many many verbs, for example 'to have'. It's hard to state the exact boundaries, but generally, if it seems safe to assume that the object 'belongs' to the subject of the sentence, you don't need to use a possessive.
That would be harmful if any Polish person learning English via the reverse tree tried such an absurdly literal answer and got it accepted.
