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  5. "A él no le gusta el deporte."

"A él no le gusta el deporte."

Translation:He does not like sports.

December 16, 2013



Why is both the singular and plural acceptable in Spanish to say 'sports' in this sentence?


In America, we don't generally use singular sport to refer to sports in general. AndyNZ's first example sentence, "She was good at sport during her school years" would sound strange to us. I would have interpreted the given sentence to refer to a particular unspecified sport. "He did not like the sport" (of skiing, for example). How would one say that in Spanish, if 'el deporte' refers to all/some sport? Would it just depend on context?


In England it is just the opposite. The singular "sport" is used to cover all sports. The purial seems here very strange.


I learned something (else) today: UK English. Thanks.


I agree that if I was talking about someone as a spectator I would probably say 'he does not like sport' but if I was talking about someone as a participant I think I would be more likely to use the plural 'he does not like sports'. i.e. The school boy doesn't like (taking part in) sports.


Probably because "sport" and "sports" can mean the same thing in English. "She was good at sport during her school years" or "She was good at sports during her school years". I associate the former with Commonwealth countries, the latter with the US. Though YMMV...

BTW, your question should begin with "Why are both...", not "is". Just for future reference...


I believe this is also true with words such as Math. In the US we say "I am good at Math" while in the U.K. one would say, "I am good at Maths". Sounds odd to people from the states but totally natural over in Britannia.


Thanks for the English lesson in a Spanish post Andy.


Both are acceptable, but if you change from singular to plural you also need to change the verb, because in Spanish "deporte or deportes" is the subject!

A él no le gusta el deporte

A él no le gustan los deportes


Can someone please break this sentence down grammatically for me? I'm terribly confused.


'A él ' clarifies the indirect object 'le', which could mean 'to him/her/it'. 'El deporte' is the 3rd person singular subject of 'gusta'.

Remember gustar is used 'backwards', more like to be pleasing than to like. So technically, think of it as "to him, sports are not pleasing (to him)", but don't actually translate it that way.


I'm confused when you use "A el" (I don't have accents on my keyboard right now) or other forms of that. When you use one of the indirect objects (lo, le) you typically need something like an "a el" somewhere?


Kind of - when using an indirect object (like le, les), the le is always required. "A él" is optional, and would clarify who le is referring to. It could be "a él", "a ella", "a Judy" - "le" is still required, but "a (someone)" is just icing.

With direct objects (since you mentioned lo), "lo" or "la", it's a little different, because lo/la is only sometimes required. But for here, just recognize that "le" is an indirect object, and "lo/la" are direct objects.


In a construction like "A él no le gusta..." is the "a él" also adding an emphasis, something like "he REALLY doesn't like it", or "HE really doesn't..."? Thanks!


Yes, the "a el", " A mí" etc. is both for clarity and for emphasis.

In addition, DL generally likes the redundancy with "gustar" That is, generally begin with "A él" or "a ellos". Etc.
Though it is not always necessary in Spanish, nevertheless, for DL, you should automatically put it in.


I find it helpful to replace 'like' in your head with 'is pleasing' and rephrase the sentence accordingly.


Thank you for the enlightment .


Different grammar structures for "gustar" and "like" in both languages:

A ella (indirect object) no le gusta (intransitive verb) el fútbol (subject).

If we change the subject from singular to plural we need to change the verb: A ella no le gustan los partidos

She (subject) does not like (transitive verb) football (direct object).


"sports" is used as a collective noun in American English, and takes the plural form. You only say "sport" when referring to a specific sport, and you have to use an article.


is enjoy not the same as like..............


It marked "enjoy" wrong but doesn't that mean the same thing as like????


I still don't get all the 'A el no le....' Why not just 'el se no gusta'...?


The "A él" is the way that clarification is given to the direct object pronoun "le" in "le gusta". It clarifies that the le is referring to he (él). It is even done like that when it is redundant and clarification isn't needed, such as "A mi me gusta jamon".


is sports the direct object here? isn't le considered an indirect object? so i'm still confused. though i see what you're saying, i think. that a el clarifies who le is.

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In English, sports or sport is the direct object of the transitive verb like. But Spanish doesn't have a verb that is commonly used in this situation that corresponds to like. Gustar means "to be pleasing to." The subject and object are reversed with respect to "like" in English.

So, in the Spanish sentence, le, which is clarified by a él, is the indirect object of the verb gusta and el deporte is the subject. (Gustar also is one of many verbs that have the quirk of taking indirect objects instead of direct objects. So, in this sentence in Spanish, there is no direct object.)


because in English we say he does not like sports, but in Spanish they are saying, to him the sport does not pleasure.


A él no le gusta el deporte. "¡A mi tampoco!" es lo correcto.


Don't understand why "El no dusta el deporte" not acceptable


Assuming you mean gusta instead of dusta, the verb gustar always have to be reflexive. F. ex: Yo me gusta, tu te gusta and so own. Doesn't matter if you've already said yo, tu, el, ella, usted or ustedes.


'Gustar' isn't a reflexive verb and doesn't use the subject pronouns 'yo, tu, etc'. It actually means 'to be pleasing', so you have to say 'it is pleasing to me/to him/etc.' 'It is not pleasing to him', as in this sentence, is 'no le gusta'. As the 'le' here could be 'to him/her/you', 'a él' is placed before the pronoun to clarify. 'A él no le gusta el deporte' is expressed in English as 'He does not like sport'.


Marked down for using the plural when the singular was not an option. Boo!


i wrote enjoy instead of like. shouldn't that be accepted too?


No, it's a different meaning. The Spanish verb for "to enjoy" is disfrutar.


no, the hover just said enjoy as well


Andrei, you cannot trust the hover-hints.


Why can't you say 'he's not a fan of sports?'


A software limitation, I suspect. The further you take your answer from a literal translation of the phrase, (i.e. paraphrase), the less likely the software will recognise it as a valid answer.

For example, "The dude's not into sports" has the same meaning ultimately, but the software comparison database is unlikely to recognise "dude" or "into" in the context of what it expects to get from you, so gives a "wrong" response.

OTOH, a human marker might accept it.



he doesnt like sports. I should think a forgotten apostrophe would be excused.


"he does not like the sports" why is this not accepted. should it not be or is it a duolingo mistake?


No. This example is referring to sports in general, not any sports in particular. In English, general topics must take no article ("the", "a", "an").


Why le instead of lo ??


gustar requires indirect object pronouns


Nothing reflexive going on with gustar, though. Gustar takes indirect objects and corresponding pronouns.


why not: al no le gusta el deporte?


The "al" contraction is not used with él, nor with proper names like El Salvador


spanish is different than english, so the contractions are different to. it is just a el no le gusta el deporte.


A is At WHY IS IT THERE????!?!?!?!


Because he's the object of the sentence (it pleases him), and all personal object pronouns must be preceded by "a".


Why is there an "A" before the el?


This sentence made me laugh. All I could think of was the song, "Hate The Sport", from We Are The Best!


Do you need the starting "A" here?


Yes - "a él" clarifies that the indirect object "le" refers to "él". You could say "No le gusta el deporte", and leave it implied. But it would be wrong to say "él no le gusta el deporte".


I find the sentence structure extremely confusing... "At" "he" "not" "it" "likes" "the" "sports" simply does not seem logical.


Sentences using 'gustar' can't be translated literally into English, as the Spanish usage is different. If you look further up this page you will see plenty of explanations, or alternatively, research 'gustar' to see how it is used.


It says I have a typo i don't see the typo unless it is the period or the accent on el


My answer "Sports are not pleasing to him" was not accepted. Any idea why?


Probably because that isn't how we speak English. We use the verb 'to like', which can't be literally translated into Spanish, as their usage is different.


'to like' means 'find agreeable, enjoyable, or satisfactory.' 'pleasing' means 'satisfying or appealing.'

They're virtually identical in meaning. As for the rest, there is no 'how we speak English' -- English is spoken in many countries across the world, and there are wild variations in usage.

As far as I can tell, there is no issue with the grammar of 'Sports are not pleasing to him.' and the answer should be accepted.


the illegal alien doesn't like deportation to mexico


DL did not accept "He does not like the sports"


In English the word " Sports" as noun is denoted in plural.


Why must you say A el no le gusta., not simply , no le gusta el deporte


Why do we need 'a él' aswell as the 'le'? Is it for emphasis? Thanks


This is talking about me.


¿Por que "a él", no sólo "él"?

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