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"I do not have a pen and a pencil."

Translation:Nie mam długopisu i ołówka.

January 12, 2016

13 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Colin198350

Is it correct to say "i" for a negative in Polish? I used "ani", but it was rejected.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mihxal

It's possible. But you're right "Nie mam długopisu ani ołówka" is a correct. sentence


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/br0d4
Mod
  • 1875

Should be approved. Did you report it?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Colin198350

I'm new to the forums, and don't know how to report things - my Android app doesn't allow it. Can you tell me how?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/immery

after you answered the question a geen ar red rectangle pops out. you are correct/oops thats not correct. and on the left there is speech baloon and a flag. when you hit baloon you enter discussion, when flag report a problem shows,

if you had correct answer there is a problem with this exercise shows with a place to write

if not correct you can check my answer should be accepted or there is another problem with this exercise, with a place to write


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/br0d4
Mod
  • 1875

Oh, it may not work on Android.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/noimea

Nie mam długopisu ani ołówka is more appropriate than Nie mam długopisu I ołówka


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/br0d4
Mod
  • 1875

The English phrase says "... a pen and a pencil" - not "... a pen nor a pencil", which would be exactly what is in Polish " długopisu ani ołówka" (putting aside whether that is natural to say so).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/noimea

Good catch. I should have elaborated on that sentence more. What I mean is that in both English and Polish in sentences that express lack of something, it is more appropriate to use a negative connector (nor / ani) than the positive one (and / I). The given sentence with "and" is technically correct and you are right that it should be translated as "i" not "ani". My previous comment should have said that it is more natural for both languages to have "I do not have a pen or a pencil (or neither a pen nor a pencil) and translated into "Nie mam długopisu ani ołówka"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Kendra800150

To me the use of "and" under negation implies that the pen and pencil are a set, like the gift sets people give as presents. Under most circumstances it would be more common to say "a pen or pencil," i.e. the question is whether the person has a writing implement. That would be translated "Nie mam długopisu ani ołówka," while "Nie mam ani dłupopisu ani ołówka" is more emphatic, "I have neither a pen nor a pencil"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jellei

I guess "Nie mam długopisu ani ołówka" is a more probable sentence, "... i ołówka" does sound as if I was supposed to have both and I didn't take them from home. Which of course is possible.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/fmarkom

Does this suggest that I do not have them both at the same time?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jellei

Yeah, seems so. From my comment above:

I guess "Nie mam długopisu ani ołówka" is a more probable sentence, "... i ołówka" does sound as if I was supposed to have both and I didn't take them from home. Which of course is possible.

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