"No man works here" - why not?
It would be "Nie pracuje tu żaden mężczyzna"
In English these two sentences mean the same.
So do those two sentences in Polish, but Duolingo focuses on literal translations, which preserve not only meaning, but also form and style.
Is there a reason for putting the subject of the sentence at the end? Would żadni meżçzyźni tu nie pracują be correct?
It's fine, it just shifts the emphasis from 'absolutely no men' to 'aren't working'.
Does there aren't any men working here work?
Why does a diacritical mark suddenly appear above the final z?
It gets softened during declension.
isn't "there aren't any men" the same as "there are no men" though?
Makes sense, added.
"Tutaj mężczyzn nie pracują" isn't another way to write this sentence?
No, because "mężczyzn" makes no sense here. Did you put it in Genitive because the sentence is negated? But it's the subject of the sentence, it has to stay in Nominative...
Nie pracują tu mężczyźni
"None of the men work here" ?
Or is that too specific?
I think that in such a sentence "the men" means "these men" (some specific ones), so it really would need to be "żadni z tych mężczyzn".