"Are we men?"
In Spanish, questions begin and end with a question mark (¿?) and exclamations begin and end with an exclamation mark (¡!) My high school Spanish teacher said she much preferred it this way, because when reading a long sentence you know at the outset that the person is making an inquiry or excited about something.
That's quite a good idea and is the only thing that could be tweaked in English. I hate reading a long sentence in one register to only find out at the very end it needs to change!
That explains why the Spanish have so much gusto in their expressions. I was in Madrid for two months, and when the people would have a simple conversation it almost sounded like they were arguing.
I actually made a mistake, but the computer says it's ok. I wrote: Somos hombres? But you should actually also use an upside down question mark: ¿Somos hombres?
you actually dont have to include the right side up question mark (?) either... just write the sentence... it works with human lazyness :)
Does the upside down question mark indicate that it is a question and not a statement? i.e somos hombres = we are men. And ¿somos hombres? = are we men?
It says "¿Somos hombres?" is correct as well as "¿Somos nosotros hombres?". Is this correct? Does any of these more preferred than the other? In second one the order of the words is similar to english.
You can use both of them, but people use the first version much more often. The second version is preferred in grammar books. /It's the same like "férfiak vagyunk?" and "mi férfiak vagyunk?" in hungarian :) /