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  5. "Luego él se la mostró a sus …

"Luego él se la mostró a sus amigos."

Translation:Then he showed it to his friends.

January 14, 2013



Why is it reflexive? Doesn't ,"se" mean it's reflexive?


Whenever both pronouns begin with the letter "l" change the first pronoun to "se." So it becomes "se la" instead of "les la". http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iodopro.htm


Man, that's awful :( It destroys information, and "les lo" etc are not that hard to say like "y iglesias" is.

[deactivated user]

    By the way, when the next word starts with an "i" (or "hi"), the word for "and" becomes "e": e información, e iglesias, e historia The same with "or": o - u: uno u otro, siete u ocho


    Mannnn I should have just gone back to learning French


    Luckily English has no such peculiarities (!)


    I took four years of French, and feel the opposite way---I think Spanish is much more simple! :)

    [deactivated user]

      No, you have chosen pretty well! French indeed has peculiarities of its own, but you can always start it if you wish, as with any other language. Besides, the pronunciation of Spanish is much more logical and related to what is written than in French.


      I've taken four years of French, and have yet to run across as many peculiarities as Spanish.

      [deactivated user]

        Thank you for the tip!:) Very handy!:)


        What is also bad, is that if you ignore the rule and say "les lo", you will still confuse people, probably.

        Have a lingot.


        Yes, I have long felt the same way. It seems like a silly rule to me - especially to substitute les with se - but it is the way Spanish is spoken.


        'les lo', 'le lo', 'le los', 'les los' etc. sound awkward. Saying 'le lo' even sounds 'lelo', which means dumb.


        Thanks for a clear explanation. Doulingo is a fantastic app, but I think it could do better by exposing learners to something like this before expecting them to provide it as a correct answer. I am in the midst of "strengthening" past verbs, and this pops up. It is the first time I've ever come across this, so answering correctly is beyond a long shot. Just my 2 cents.


        I agree that it would be nice if it explained some things a bit better and didn't randomly throw new things in places, but at least once you go through the trouble of learning it yourself, or through the discussions, you are a lot less likely to forget it. :)


        Why are there 2 pronouns?


        Because there is a direct object and an indirect object: He showed IT (la) to HIS FRIENDS (se....)


        Ah! You get a lingot for that.


        why is "it" feminine "la" why not lo?


        Because it refers to an 'it' that is feminine, like 'la tienda' or 'la foto' etc. Would be 'lo' if it referred to a masculine noun.


        It is frustrating to work so hard trying to figure this out only to find that it is an unusual rule that was never mentioned. Thanks. I was totally baffled


        Hi in fact in the online computer version all the grammar related lessona do have grammar rules explained in duolingo including this one but not on android aps


        To nik_rao's comment - Isn't is "les la" becomes "se la"? The "amigos" is plural so I would expect "les" instead of "le"?


        64 comments to date on this sentence. One can hope that the DL computer will spit out more sentences with the se la issue in them. How are these sentences monitered?


        Exactly why is "se" necessary here?


        Allinuse: The "se" takes the place of "les" which in this case means "to them" (his friends). "les' is the indirect object pronoun. "la" is the direct object pronoun "her". Both object pronouns go in front of the verb. The indirect always goes first. So.......we would have "Luego él les la mostró a sus amigos". But there is a rule that you cannot have two object pronouns in a row start with "L", so the "les" is changed to "se", so we get the correct translation at the top of the page. This is called the "la la" rule. [Reference, SPANISH PRONOUNS AND PREPOSITIONS by Dorothy Richmond, Page 88.]

        • 2904

        Thanks for your very helpful explanation, Rickydito. Since the sentence says 'a sus amigos' (so we know that he showed 'to his friends') why do we even need to have les (which then needs to become se and confuse the heck out of many of us)?!


        Hola Amigo ns8: We need the "les". In Spanish, we have to have the indirect object pronoun ("LES") even though we already have the indirect object spelled out ("A SUS AMIGOS"). Why? That's just the way it is in Spanish. This is sometimes referred to as the "redundant indirect object pronoun". The "les" is required, but the "a sus amigos" is not. There is no further explanation; it is what some people call "Rule 99": Because it is Spanish.

        • 2904

        Hola Amiga Lisagnipura. Thanks so much for your explanation.


        According to this link, the redundant indirect object pronoun is optional.


        Thanks for the great explanation! I would give you a lingot if I could, but I don't see a way to on the phone. :-P


        had the same confustion...thanx for such a clear explanation


        Isn't la "it" in this sentence?


        Luego is indistinct, is sounds like vuelvo to me.


        I agree, I try to repeat the sentence given at full speed and this one was just impossible for me. The slow speed is entirely different.


        Does la in this sentence mean it? We are assuming we know what the gender of 'it' is right?


        "Then he showed it to their friends", I don't understand why that wasn't accepted. http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/their


        sanlee: That should be correct. Did you report it to Duo?


        Yes, I did. Thanks Ricky.


        i wrote a similar sentence; "then he showed her to their friends" but not accepted :(


        He showed what to his friends??... lol XD :'D


        If anyone needs more clarification, here's a guy who could clear this up in an easy way: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2l2C6P1mXU0


        Why is "later he showed it to his friends" not accepted?


        That seems to be accepted now (11 Feb 2013).


        Read the comments at the top. It's taking the place of "les".


        Doesn't "ses" take the place of "les?"


        Se is its own plural.


        Do you know when to use "ses?" Would it be when ses = them? I know that "se" is used to replace "it," which is singular. But it the word to be replaced is plural, such as "them," then shouldn't the replacement be plural as well?


        In this case, se is used to replace le or les when ot would directly precede la/las/lo/los.


        What is wrong with "He showed it to his friends later"?


        I put "he showed her her friends" DL says "he showed her to her friends" isn't that pretty much the same thing?


        "He showed her her friends" would be euivalent to "He showed her friends to her". You would want "He showed her friends her." Although to be honest that's a bit more unwieldy and I'm not sure I'd ever say it...


        it felt like 'a sus amigos' is the personal 'a.' I get that 'les'--referring to the amigos--must change to 'se' because the i.o. must always precede the d.o., which accounts for the 'se la mostró,' and you cannot have two 'L's together, such as 'les la' or 'les lo.'

        I looked to see if 'mostrar+a' was one of those inf+prep constructions and it isn't AFAIK.

        Is context going to determine the meaning as 'showed to his friends' versus 'showed his friends?'


        Is anyone else getting the same exact sentence for the last 3-4 times on the past-tense lessons?

        • 241

        Tell me please why there is 'se', which should refer to a singular indirect object which is absent here. He (subject) showed her (direct object) to his friends (indirect object). Woudn't it be Él les la mostró [a sus amigos]? Or does 'les' also tranfer to 'se' as 'le' does?


        Your question was answered a month ago above ^^^^. I


        would using 'le' be just as acceptable as 'se la' in this context?


        Hola Amigo Bisade: First of all, it would be "les" (plural)......There is a rule called the "la la" rule. You cannot have two object pronouns that start with the letter "L" in a row. So, if this happens, you must change the first one to "se"............So, in this sentence, "Then he showed it to his friends", "la" signifies "it"and "les" would signify "to them"....so...you would have "Luego él les la mostró a sus amigos."...... But...because of the "la la" rule, you cannot have "les" followed by "la" so we have to change the "les" to "se". and we get: "Luego él se la mostró a sus amigos." ¡Ciao!


        What's wrong with "Later on, he showed it to his friends"


        Sorry I ment to say luego and entonces as in "Luego él se la mostró a sus amigos".


        Luego means later, entonces then


        I listened to this 20 or 30 times and just could not hear Luego. Sounded like Juego. I got the whole thing right except for that one letter. And it wouldn't give me a typo either. They marked me wrong. :(


        the "se" screwed me up and I lost a heart...but I'm learning ....and that's what I am here for. It's not easy...but hey...what is? I love this app


        He then showed it to his friends. (So, why is that translation 'wrong'?)


        the recording is really hard to understand


        Would "entonces" also work here?


        why " Later he showed his friends to her " is not accepted?Isn't it correct


        why is there "la"? please help since the past tense began i got lost in all these rules...


        Why does it say "la"?? does it depend on the subject its being talked about in the sentence?


        Same question 4 times in a row. ❤❤❤ am I paying for. The past 3 lessons have been just departing the same sentence over and over and over and over. I think what he shows his ❤❤❤❤❤❤❤ friends was this Damn question. Now, stop it already.


        "He took it out"


        So, i tried a more literal translation to see how it would be handled. "later, it was shown by him to his friends" Marked as incorrect. What is the community take on this?


        Podría ser también "Then he showed <HER> to his friends" ¿no?...


        Maybe it's my computer, but it's really hard to hear this one; have to use the slow version.


        What if the thing he is showing to his friends would be masculine, would you get 'Luego él se el mostró a sus amigos'? Or would 'se el' be contracted?


        If the thing he is showing is masculine (example: he is showing a book - el libro - masculine), then you would have:

        Luego él se lo mostró a sus amigos.


        Poor audio. "Luego" sounds very strange, and "mostró" sounds like "mostó."


        I translated this as 'Later he showed it to his friends'. Hasta luego!!!!


        There was no error. I'm getting damned tired of it. For the thousandth time your goddam program cut me off before I was through typing and gave me an error. I'm now trying to test out for the third time, and in each of the previous two attempts it did the same thing when there was no error. FIX IT!!!


        i don't understand why is it la and not lo? why can't you say luego el se lo mostro a sus amigos? if la (it) in this instance but not lo (it) thanks:-) I initially thought this sentence read "then he, himself showed her to his friends" lol confused.com;-(


        Would it also be correct/accepted to say, "Luego, él la mostró a sus amigos"?


        after reading ALL comments i finally get the "se". i'm happy i understand now, but i don't have time anymore to mow the grass.


        Why it isn't "Luego el la mostro a sus amigos." ?

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