By the way, when the next word starts with an "i" (or "hi"), the word for "and" becomes "e": e información, e iglesias, e historia The same with "or": o - u: uno u otro, siete u ocho
No, you have chosen pretty well! French indeed has peculiarities of its own, but you can always start it if you wish, as with any other language. Besides, the pronunciation of Spanish is much more logical and related to what is written than in French.
Thanks for a clear explanation. Doulingo is a fantastic app, but I think it could do better by exposing learners to something like this before expecting them to provide it as a correct answer. I am in the midst of "strengthening" past verbs, and this pops up. It is the first time I've ever come across this, so answering correctly is beyond a long shot. Just my 2 cents.
Allinuse: The "se" takes the place of "les" which in this case means "to them" (his friends). "les' is the indirect object pronoun. "la" is the direct object pronoun "her". Both object pronouns go in front of the verb. The indirect always goes first. So.......we would have "Luego él les la mostró a sus amigos". But there is a rule that you cannot have two object pronouns in a row start with "L", so the "les" is changed to "se", so we get the correct translation at the top of the page. This is called the "la la" rule. [Reference, SPANISH PRONOUNS AND PREPOSITIONS by Dorothy Richmond, Page 88.]
Hola Amigo ns8: We need the "les". In Spanish, we have to have the indirect object pronoun ("LES") even though we already have the indirect object spelled out ("A SUS AMIGOS"). Why? That's just the way it is in Spanish. This is sometimes referred to as the "redundant indirect object pronoun". The "les" is required, but the "a sus amigos" is not. There is no further explanation; it is what some people call "Rule 99": Because it is Spanish.
According to this link, the redundant indirect object pronoun is optional.
it felt like 'a sus amigos' is the personal 'a.' I get that 'les'--referring to the amigos--must change to 'se' because the i.o. must always precede the d.o., which accounts for the 'se la mostró,' and you cannot have two 'L's together, such as 'les la' or 'les lo.'
I looked to see if 'mostrar+a' was one of those inf+prep constructions and it isn't AFAIK.
Is context going to determine the meaning as 'showed to his friends' versus 'showed his friends?'
Hola Amigo noteminame: No offense to your friend, but that does not make any sense at all. One object can be plural and the other singular or they both can be plural or they both can be singular. This just shows that native speakers often do not understand the grammar of their own language. Ciao.
Hola Amigo Bisade: First of all, it would be "les" (plural)......There is a rule called the "la la" rule. You cannot have two object pronouns that start with the letter "L" in a row. So, if this happens, you must change the first one to "se"............So, in this sentence, "Then he showed it to his friends", "la" signifies "it"and "les" would signify "to them"....so...you would have "Luego él les la mostró a sus amigos."...... But...because of the "la la" rule, you cannot have "les" followed by "la" so we have to change the "les" to "se". and we get: "Luego él se la mostró a sus amigos." ¡Ciao!
There was no error. I'm getting damned tired of it. For the thousandth time your goddam program cut me off before I was through typing and gave me an error. I'm now trying to test out for the third time, and in each of the previous two attempts it did the same thing when there was no error. FIX IT!!!
Could someone please clarify how and when ´a´ is necessary? I am confused.....as far as I am able to see, you use a in conjunction with a verb that takes someone somewhere rather than with a verb that is just about doing something like reading or looking...? Is this right_ help please!!!
tonibolland and SweetBackflips, From what I understand, the literal translation of “Luego él se la mostró a sus amigos” is “Then he to them it/her showed his friends.” The “a” does not mean “to”. It is the infamous ‘personal a”. It’s the indirect object pronoun “se” which indicates “to” or "for" someone. Spanish grammar is a real head breaker and tear inducer....
I think the "her" would be one correct answer, except when you translate it: It is unlikely that he showed "her" to his friends...perhaps introduced her...but for the "la" to be "it" it has to be a feminine direct object, like a rose...just speculation..... Actually, from my comment above it looks like Duo changed the translation from "her" to "it" somewhere along the line
I am totally confused about this! I thought, el se mostro means he showed himself, isn't it the meaning of the "se" part?! And "la" means a girl, a woman. One exclude another. I've read the explanation above (the rule was NEVER mentioned before, how could I ever imagine?!). Then, how the hell one can distinguish the different "se's"???!