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- "Me gustas mucho."
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If the verb has the 'you (singular)' ending, and it is 'me' instead of 'yo', why doesn't this translate as "You like me a lot?"
The thing about [gustar] is that it actually means "please" as in "X pleases y.", but it's used to convey "like", so "Me gustas." really means "You please me." but has the effect of "I like you." It seems a little backwards, but that's how it works. Another example: "Te gusto."=("I please you.")="You like me."
I'm not sure it is helpful, but it's just like Russian. Ты мне нравишься. Means I like you, even though it's You are liked by me if translate word by word
German has "gefallen" that works the same way. "Es gefallt mir" means "It (es) is pleasing to me (mir)" -- or simply "I like it!"
Thank you very much!! I was wondering about this one day in the middle of spanish class.
We have the same way of saying I like smth in Russian and Bulgarian. But your explanation clears it why its this way in Spanish. Gracías
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Thanks, this is one of those challenges in Spanish to English, you gave me a very good explanation. Not sure where but I have seen this arrangement with other verbs.
There is a classification of verbs, in textbooks they are usually referred to as "verbs like gustar", that take indirect object pronouns. So basically they function in reverse, where the person involved is not the subject of the sentence, but rather being acted upon by someone or something else. The verb gustar would be better thought of as meaning " to appeal to/to please". So " I like the shoes" is really "the shoes appeal to/please me". Which means that they are now the subject of the sentence performing the action of the verb 'appeal'. In Spanish this would translate to: Me gustaN los zapatos. Gustan in the plural because shoes is plural. Other verbs similar to gustar are more obvious: interesar, molestar, aburrir, fascinar, importar, disgustar*, etc. If you look up the definitions of those it will make a lot more sense, as gustar is one of the more difficult ones for English speakers to grasp, yet usually the first to be taught probably because of its common use.
Thanks for the very good question. I was troubled by it too, but I was not quite sure why. You figured it out perfectly.
When we use indirect object pronouns the object/recipient decides verb forms.. you here
I feel like there should be an explanation regarding the sexual connotation of this phrase...
From my experience among native speakers this phrase is super sexual! Definitely not a phrase to use lightly.
It just means "I like you a lot"... Now, I guess it depends on the tone of your voice.
This sounds more like friend-zoning someone than flirting (in English, at least): "I like you a lot, but..."
Generally, using "gustar" with people has a sexual or flirtatious connotation. (Think "you please me.")
If you just wanted to say "I like you (but...)" you might say "Me caes bien (pero...)" with more of a connotation of "We get along well."
I wouldn't say "me caes bien, pero no me gustas de esa manera" or something similar using 'me caes bien' here. In Spain at least, we use the phrase mostly for when you are still getting acquainted (although you could say it of someone you've known for long as well). However, used this way, it doesn't convey the same warmth as "I really like you, but...".
I would prefer to use, "te tengo mucho cariño, pero..."
I like the way this sounds, but does this not translate as "I have much love you" ?
I'd use “romantic" instead of “sexual". People read “sexual connotation" and “you please me" together and misunderstand this as a commentary on performance “in bed". It can be used that way, but that is not what this means by default.
it does seem to mean pretty much the same thing... submit it as a correction!
Why does me "gustas" have an "s" - I didn't think the conjugation changed for "me gusta" except using "gustan" for plurals and "gusto" for the past?
Most of the time something pleases (or many things) please someone, which is why a lot of time is spent on something pleases me. or "me gusta la cosa" or many things please me "me gustan las cosas", but gustar is conjugated like all the other verbs ending in "-ar". Just keep in mind that it is a backwards sentence and the subject is placed after the verb, unless the subject is a pronoun in which case it is often omitted. "gustas" has the ending for the subject Tú which has been omitted. This sentence could have been written "Tú me gustas mucho." and translates literally to "You are much(meaning very) pleasing to me." this is translated to the more common "I like you a lot."
When you come across a verb in Duolingo and you scroll your mouse over it you will see the definitions and a blue conjugate tab which you can click on to see the full conjugations in the tenses that you have learned.(Present, past, then future and more will appear as you learn them).
I could be pleasing to someone else. "Yo te gusto mucho." or "Te gusto mucho." would be "I am very pleasing to you." this is translated to the more common "You like me a lot."
Yo te gusto
Tú me gustas
Él/ella/usted/ me gusta (includes ello which means it, but is always omitted)
Nosotros/nosotras les gustamos "We please them (or you formal plural version)."
Vosotros/vosotras nos gustáis (familiar plural you form) "You are pleasing to us."
Ellos/ellas/ustedes me gustan (They or formal plural you)
http://spanish.about.com/cs/vocabulary/a/love_words_2.htm http://spanish.about.com/od/usingparticularverbs/a/gustar.htm http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/it.htm
Good question. I would assume it's because Duolingo wants to get you more accustomed to interpreting it as "I like you".
Great song ! But can you tell me if there's any difference between "Que hora es?" and "Que horas son?"
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hola roosky, en la canción el dice "que horas son mi corazon". Él no usa "qué". No olvides, "qué" es "what" y "que" es "that" (y etc). Lo que el está tratando de decir es "These hours are.."
ok, sorry for adding more to the clutter (but i didnt find answer here), i am confused about this sentence. my understanding is tu is omitted here, but if you didnt, wouldnt it stay after gustas, as in "me gustas tu mucho"? (as opposed to "tu me gustas mucho") ? thanks
In a word, no. "Tú" is the subject of the sentence rather than the object. (Yes, "gustar" is weird like that, with the liker being the object and the liked being the subject. [Or rather, it seems weird to English-speakers.]) Just like in English, the subject of the sentence comes first most of the time, so you would put it before "gustas" instead of after.
However, since "tú" can only be used for the subject of a sentence ("ti" is used when it's the object), your phrasing would probably make sense to a Spanish speaker, especially since Spanish sentences have always been a little more flexible than English sentences in my experiences. The difference between "tú" and "ti" is the same as the difference between "I" and "me" in English (or "we"/"us", "they"/"them", "he"/"him", "she"/"her", etc.). Furthermore, the rest of the sentence is also already structured to convey "I like you a lot." instead of the reverse: "gustar" is conjugated to the "tú" form and "me" is being used as the object. My point is that you could get away with saying "Me gustas tú mucho.", but you'll be better off saying "Tú me gustas mucho."
In fact, you'll be best off saying "Me gustas mucho." just like in the example. It's shorter, and it saves you from worrying about the placement of "tú". (You already knew that, but I figured I'd add that for future readers of this thread.)
EDIT: Some of the previous commenters in this thread have pointed out the Manu Chao song "Me Gustas Tú": [https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=v2oIqlEkX5s].
muchas gracias senor! im very thankful that (most of the time) this community is so helpful, and i learn more from it as well (in addition to duolingo)
an arrow up and a lingot
Not necessarily. It's more of a romantic statement used to imply infatuation or a strong attraction to someone. It is often used with sexual undertones, however, so it is probably not wise to use within a platonic relationship, or even a romantic one if you don't want to imply some sexual attraction.
Good question! But no; gustar relies on the use of an indirect object pronoun (me, te, nos, le, les), to describe to whom the subject is pleasing. In contrast, direct object pronouns (me, te, nos, lo/la, los/las) are gender-specific, at least in the third-person.
No, if it were "you are pleasing to us/we like you" it would be "nos" for both nosotros and nosotras.
Gustar changes to match the number (plural/singular) of the subject: http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/gustar#conjugation
Thank you! I'm new to Spanish and plural/singular/femine/masculine always messes me up.
In this case, "me" is an indirect object pronoun and doesn't directly stand for "I" or "me"
"You are pleasing to me" is the literal translation for "Me gustas mucho"
"Yo" means "I"
http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/iopro1.htm
http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/prepositional_object_pronouns.htm
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/102785/when-is-me-and-when-is-mi-used
I thought the verb gustar could only be conjugated in 3rd person singular and plural (Gusta and Gustan). I did not know that other forms of Gustar outside of these were used at all...
Nope; anyone or anything can like anyone or anything with the verb "gustar".
This statement is often used with sexual undertones or romantically, so using it as an expression of familial fondness or endearment is probably not a good idea. Another phrase may be better, like "Te amo."
Funny thing. Type what you hear audio means type in Spanish. Before I think I type in English. Wrong but right. My head hears them as the same. Is my limited north American brain finally learning another language
Both are first-person singular object pronouns, but "me" is applied to a verb, either coming before it ("Me das el dinero."/"You give me the money.") or attached to the end of it ("Él quiere decirme."/"He wants to tell me."), whereas "mí" comes after a pronoun ("Das el dinero a mí."/"You give the money to me.", "Él quiere comprar regalos para mí."/"He wants to buy presents for me."). It also works the same with" te"/"ti". You should try to use "me" wherever you can, in my opinion (it sounds more natural and results in shorter sentences), but you can use "mí" as well in most places; you just have to add the preposition yourself. There will be some places where "me" is not an option, however; sometimes that preposition is required for the sentence to make sense. Also, you may see both used in the same sentence, especially with "gustar", such as "A mí me gustas mucho.", which is the same as "Me gustas mucho."
NOTE: I've been assuming that you're talking about "mí" (with an accent mark) and not "mi" (without an accent mark). "Mi" (without the accent mark) is a first-person singular possessive pronoun - the Spanish word for "my". Remember that it also had a plural form, "mis", though. So: "mi zapato"="my shoe" and "mis zapatos"="my shoes".
Because that is a grammatical error. In Spanish they stay 'you please to me' which means in English 'I like you'. In a sentence where Yo is the subject, the verb should end at an -o. The subject in the sentence 'me gustas' is Tu. See above at the other comments where it is explained very well.
"Mi" means "my"
"Me" means "to me"
Gustar uses an indirect object to define who is being pleased by the subject of the sentence. Me gustan las fresas - the strawberries are pleasing to me (in English, I like strawberries).
Te gustan las fresas - you like strawberries (literally, the strawberries are pleasing to you)
This literally means, you please me a lot. Gustar is to please. I heard using gustar instead of pensar to say one likes someone is slang.
can you please tell me how it would have been the spanish for "i like IT a lot"?
Me gusta mucho.
3rd person singular. Without context, this would also mean I like her/him a lot.
thanks :) it's not easy for me: i'm an italian trying to learn spanish through english :D
From SpanDict Q&A:
"Yo" is a subject pronoun that means "I", while "me" is an indirect object pronoun and direct object pronoun used when referring to yourself."
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/225971/what-is-the-difference-between-yo-and-me
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/256641/how-do-i-know-when-to-use-yo-and-me-in-certain-sentences
I keep getting this confused with "Mucho gusto". That could be embarrassing! ☺
Shouldn't it be "Yo gusto tú mucho" ? Translating directly from English i.e. Or is the Spanish sentence in a passive form so to speak?
so where in "me gustas mucho" do we find the subject, "you"? Why would you know that it isnt "I like him/her/it alot"?
The "-as" ending of "gustas" denotes that it is the "tú" ("you"; second-person singular) conjugation of "gustar". If it were him/her/it, the ending would be "-a": "Me gusta mucho." (although you might want to say "Me gusta él mucho." ["I like him a lot."] or "Me gusta ella mucho." ["I like her a lot."] to specify a gender/show that the thing you're liking is a human).
Some other conjugations: - Me gustan [ellos/ellas] mucho. (I like them a lot.) - Me gustan [ustedes] mucho. (I like you all a lot.) - Me gustamos [nosotros] mucho. (I like us a lot.) - Me gusta [usted] mucho. (I like you [sir/ma'am] a lot.)
"Mi" is a possessive adjective, means "my" = mi gato: my cat
"Mí" is equivalent to English "me" - it is a pronoun used after a preposition. A mí me gustan los gatos - I like the cats.
"Me" is an object pronoun (direct or indirect) that means "me" or "to me" Ella me da el gato - She gives me a cat
http://learnenglishspanishonline.webs.com/apps/forums/topics/show/7998970-m-me-or-yo?next=
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Why is "lots" in there anyway? Why couldn't duolingo just put "I like you a lot"? There is not a spanish translation for "lots". I used Google translate then "lots" showed up in the spanish section of the translations, and it shows "lots" as the spanish translation.
Also when you type that sentence in Spanish transcribing the speaker, it says the correct translation is "a lot". So they tell you it's wrong, and then reprint it that way later.
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The sentance is "I like you a lot" but it hasnt given me the word lot. Instead i have the word lots and it said it was incorrect :/
As in "I like you lots"? Or, "I like you a lots"? Either way, it doesn't make a very good English sentence.
If you already know the concept of a verb conjugation, then two reasons: 1. Gustas is second person singular. 2. Gustar is not to like, but to please or to be pleasing to. The way you say "I like you" is actually saying something like "You're pleasing to me." That's why you use the second person singular.
If you don't understand what a verb conjugation is (or what second person means)... then I'm impressed you got this far.
Me gusta would be "I like it." Gustar is not to like, but to please or be pleasing to, so subject and object are reversed (notice that it's not yo gusto... that would be arrogant). So to say I like you, you say you are pleasing to me. Thus you use the word gustar in the second person singular, gustas (you are pleasing), not third person singular, gusta (he/she/it is pleasing to me, or "I like him/her/it").
Im so confused, I entered "You like me a lot." But I was a bit confused when I got it wrong. After reading jeremiah's explanation, a bit of light was shed. So basically, everything is backwards?
