I think because that doesn't make sense in English. Prepositions usually don't translate 1:1. "Bei" can only be loosely translated as "at." It works in some cases, but not all. The sentence means that person A and person B are together somewhere. In English we would say "he is with his partner."
In that case you must still use a possessive ('s). Even though it feels like slang, the grammatical artifact still remains.
"He is at his partner's" - he is at his partner's house
"He is at the doctor's" - he is at the doctor's office.
Do not say "He is at his partner" or "He is at the doctor".
"bei" always takes the dative case.
http://www.dartmouth.edu/~german/Grammatik/Prepositions/Prepositions.html (see "Dative Prepositions")
it depends on the case. since partner is masculine and we are using the dative case you use seinem. here is a cart telling you when to use each. http://almancam.com/silan/isd/yukle/db/resimupload/possessivartikels.jpg
this is a link where someone on duolingo explains it awesomely. https://www.duolingo.com/comment/266283$from_skill=76574d50a1125d56a58f6cfae395d242
and this helps you know what gender a word is to help you when referencing the chart above. http://www.rocketlanguages.com/german/learn/gender-in-german/
i think it's a perfectly normal phrase.. i just googled it, and found 338 000 results. i think "mit" implies not the place where he is, but the fact that he is with his partner. for example, in reply to "is he alone there?" - "no, he is with his partner" would be "mit". but "where is he?" - "he's with his partner/at his partner's place", then "bei" is needed.
Because it (probably) can't mean that in this sentence.
seinem means the owner is grammatically masculine or neuter, so it could apply for example to das Mädchen spielt mit seinem Ball "the girl is playing with her ball", where English uses "her" according to her natural gender and German uses seinem according to the grammatical gender of Mädchen.
But here the subject is er, and seinem most likely refers to the subject's partner rather than to the partner of some other object or person which might happen to be grammatically masculine or neuter but would use the pronoun "her" in English.
hi, i have been looking for an opportunity to ask you a question cos your explanations i always find so much easier to understand... some folk use such technical words and when i was at school 50-55 years ago english grammar never taught these terms so i still dont understand!!!! please may i ask you to explain the following to me? i am probably being very stupid but cant see why "einem andereN" in the sentence "Sie sind Besucher von einem anderen stern."? i understand einem after von and stern being masculine gender but i just dont get the N in anderen... please help!!! a million lingot thank you's!!!!!!!!!!
ps thanks so much for the clarity of the girl playing with her ball example xxxxx
You would need the " 's " because: He is at his partner's means that he is at his partner's place/location- the place belonging to the partner,
therefore: partner's .
If something belongs to someone or some thing a -'s- is needed to show the relationship. For example: The partner's apartment; the girl's toy..
In English "In English, possessive words or phrases exist for nouns and most pronouns" there is a pretty good article at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_possessive
If you said " he is with his partner" the -partner- would not need an apostrophe.
Because "ist" and "isst' are not the same word. " Er/sie/es ist" is a conjugation of "sein -to be" and "er/sie/es isst" is a conjugation of "essen -to eat".
Er/sie/es ist = he/she/it is*"
Er/sie/es isst = he/she/it eats"*
As to how you can tell the difference if you do not see the spelling, from context/from what makes sense.
you can always check words with a dictionary, whether paper or online. I really like dict.cc .
Well, cars typically aren't seen as "partners" but even in such a situation as one is which the partner's gender is unclear, the possessor of said partner is still male, so the sentence would translate as his.
If you're asking why the owner of said partner couldn't be a gender neutral object or person, I think that makes sense, but isn't something you'd hear often, especially if the subject is originally male. It just makes more sense to be translated as "his partner" rather than "its partner."