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  5. "Lo vi hace poco."

"Lo vi hace poco."

Translation:I saw him recently.

January 14, 2013



Why was "I saw him a while ago" not accepted? I think it should be.


I don't think that means the same thing. "A while ago" is farther in time.


Yeah, I guess you're right. Thank you. And thank you for developing this site! Never stop. This has been an amazing journey. I hope that Mandarin will be added someday. Thanks again! If you ever add Finnish to this site I will promise to help with it.


I agree that this is an amazing site ......... and am very appreciative.......


The only improvement I would suggest is using more pictures. I have another app that uses mostly pictures and it helps me remember nouns at least.


I would also add an option to focus on listening exercises only.


Which app is that?


Yes, Duolingo is the best and most fun way to learn a language online! And I promise to help with Lithuanian.


I totally agree regarding the Mandarin! Please please please


Mandarin for me too!


It can be a slight difference, but not necessarily. If you go to the store and see someone you know, then their spouse comes up to you and is looking for them, you can reply "I saw him a while ago". Which would mean within the time you are in the store...which isn't a very long time.


recently is very different


a while ago is always used in this type of sentence, you should revise this.


"a while ago" is a different time frame that is farther back in time than "recently" which is more like "a little bit ago". It is also used as a vague reference in which it could also cover this, but it would then be that "a while ago" could include the translation to Spanish of "poco" and not that "poco" would always mean "a while ago".


I'm not a native English speaker, but we've always been taught to use "i saw him just now" in case when its a matter of seconds/minutes ago. I thought that it would be an adequate translation for "poco" :) sorry if im wrong, do correct me


"Yo lo vi en este momento." might be better for "I saw him just now." which is similar to "I saw him a moment ago."

"Yo lo vi recientemente." can also be "I saw him recently."

"Yo lo vi hace un rato." is perhaps better for "I saw him a while ago."


For "Yo lo vi hace poco.", we could also say "I saw him not long ago." or "I saw him a little bit ago.", but I don't know if those are accepted. I think it is a bit more vague than "just now" which is even closer to the present and less vague than "a while ago" which can be a longer time from the present. On second thought, "not long ago" is rather vague and might cover "a while ago" also. Someone further down has said that "a little while ago" is accepted which makes more sense to me than "a while ago"as it is more specifically recent.


Here Spanish uses "hace poco" to define reciente for time: http://dictionary.reverso.net/spanish-definition/recientemente


Nake 89: You would need an "a el" in the sentence to be positive that the direct object (lo) is a male person i.e. him. Without that the sentence, one can correctly translate to "it" (as DL has done) or you can go out on a limb and assume that the "lo" is a male person., but without the "a el" we truly don't know.

  • 1614

"a little while ago" would be a good translation.


it accepts "I saw it a little while ago" as a correct answer


A little while ago.


Mine translated it that way. Why is 'lo' and not 'le' used?


Lo is accusative of él, the case for a direct object. Le is dative of él, the case for an indirect object


So "hace poco" means recently? Can anyone expand on this?


"hace" followed by a time period means that long ago. E.g. "hace dos horas" = "two hours ago", etc.

There are also some other less precise time measures...

  • hace un rato = a while ago
  • hace poco = a little while ago; (or put more simply) recently


thank you for posting this explanation.


Great explanation. You should consider putting a space between ago and hace. My brain thought agohace poco meant a little while ago.


I am very confused as to where 'vi' came from, it's not on the conjugation list. Judging by the answer, vi is past tense (I saw) but there's no way for us to know that


It is the past tense 1st person singular conjugation of ver (to see).


I like that site. And I truly like their honesty. Straight and to the point. They said in your link above "The following verbs are irregular in the preterite and must be memorized:" At least it let's me know there are no shortcuts in this instance. Just buckle down and memorize them


I've just started the verb-past-tense lessons, but I'm pretty sure "Lo vi" is "I saw him/it," whereas "hace poco" is "shortly ago" (if you translate it somewhat literally).


Roll your mouse over "vi" and you will have the hover hints. Click on the blue tab to see the conjugation list. On my computer it does show present and past. It depends. As you come across new forms, they are added to the list. So, I don't have future yet and I remember that it used to be only the present.


This blue tab is not there now, however they have enlarged the list of hints for this word and for those who have the "Words" tab, you can access the conjugation of Ver. If not, here is a full conjugation of which you should pay attention to the "preterito perfecto simple":

A year later and I can click on the verb to see the list of conjugations.


The sentence given to me "Lo vi hace poco" - where is the 'el' (him), why is it not needed when other times it is.

So confusing.


This is my first time seeing 'hace poco' and got it wrong on the hear and write. I put 'asi'. Anyway in the sentence 'vi' is past tense for 'I saw' Right? Then "lo' is the direct object pronoun for him/it. There is no need for 'el' (meaning he and sometimes him). So, the sentence is lo=him/it; vi=i saw; hace poco= recently.


it looks like "hace poco" = recently. I checked it everywhere


Liam: See my comment to Nake 89. They are two different sentences: I saw it. I saw him. The latter requires an "a el" to confirm that the lo (direct object) is a male person.


Only if further context is needed, otherwise it would be redundant. So basically, if you were having a conversation with somebody about somebody (masc.), if they are already aware of what or, in this particular case, who you are talking about, to say/add a él is unnecessarily redundant.


The him is in the lo =him or it


Why is: "I have seen it recently." not valid?


That changes the tense from the simple past. In Spanish, that would be "Lo he visto hace poco".


Thank you. I just always use "I have seen" instead of "I saw" and as it seems to proper to me, but I see your point.


Señor Drakegta: I assume you are a native English speaker. We use verb tenses automatically. To you and me "I have seen" and "I saw" are identical. But when you are learning another language, you become hypersensitive to the verb tenses in the new language. So, in the sentence here, the verb tense is the preterite which in English is translated without auxiliary verbs because there are none when you read the sentence in Spanish.


I used recientemente. It was marked correct but now I'm wondering what the difference is between that and "hace poco" and which would most often be used by native speakers?


why hace? wouldn't lo vi poco say the same thing?


"hace" is what denotes time. "Lo vi poco" would mean "I saw him/it a small amount".


Wouldn't "hace poco" translate somewhat literally to "shortly ago," whereby hace/ago and poco/short(ly) or hace poco/short (time) ago?


Yep! That is the literal translation, which would become 'recently'.


I wrote " I saw her recently" and it was rejected. Shouldn't it be possible to put either "him" or "her"?


"lo" is the masculine direct object pronoun meaning him, it (masculine object), or formal you (masculine). La is the feminine direct object pronoun meaning her, feminine object (it), and feminine formal you.


Thank you, Jenne :-)


I am trying to understand the idiom with hace and time. I assume that there must be a literal translation of this expression that would help me understand the grammar. Would it be saying essentially "It makes a little [time since] I saw him?"


No. See Louis's comments above.


Why recently but not lately?


Report it as an alternate and include a dictionary reference: http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/lately


I got by the hovering 'I imagined it since recently.' Can anyone explain that?


hace poco means "a short time ago" or recently. "since" changes the entire meaning. In English "see" can also mean "imagine" in certain cases but it does not always mean "imagine", so I would stick to the word "see" especially without context.


a while ago should be accepted also


"a while ago" might be too broad a term, but "a little while ago" should be accepted.

"hace un rato" is better for "a while ago".


"We SHALL think of you" is actually proper English, but was marked wrong and corrected as "We WILL think of you."


Your comment seems to be for a different sentence and should be reported at that sentence. This is the past form of to see. "Lo vi hace poco."


How do i know we are talking about "him"?? Also i was sure poco meant "some" or " a little"


"lo" could be "him" or "it"

"hace poco" is literally "a little time ago", but is translated as "recently". Perhaps "a little while ago" should also be accepted.


This might sound stupid, provided the context here, but doesn't "hace" mean "makes" too?


Amyra20 yes "hace = he/she/it/You make" from the verb hacer

Aug707 "hace = ago" and "poco = a little, not long", you do not get "recently" without hace


Why is there a "hace"? Someone please explain!


Why isn't a' little time ago' accepted? 'A little while ago' and 'recently' are.


It is not commonly said that way, but you could try reporting it.


Why is it "lo vi" and not "le vi" ? I do not understand the difference.


ver/ to see has direct object. The direct objectform of él is lo but the indirect objectform le is used in Spain


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Le%C3%ADsmo Duolingo is teaching Spanish used in South America and so does not include this variation at least not originally, perhaps to make sure we know which pronouns are which before dealing with dialect differences. I would not be surprised if they add "le" for some sentences to accomodate requests from Spaniards who are used to "leismo".


is ver irregular? normally, first person singular preterite conjugates with accented í. but this i has no accent.


The accent which shows what syllable to stress is not needed if the word has only one syllable


thanks. have a lingot


'Lo' means 'it', that sentence doesnt specify a gender. 'Him' shouldnt be included.


LO is the direct object pronoun: him, you (formal masculine) or it even when gender is not specified. SEE http://www.spanishcentral.com/translate/lo gives:

English Translation of LO (referring to masculine nouns)

1 : him, it

lo vi ayer I saw him yesterday

lo entiendo I understand it

2 (formal masculine) : you

disculpe, señor, no lo oí excuse me, sir, I didn't hear you


If i am a girl. Can i say : La vi hace poco. ?


It depends on the gender of what you see. You a girl can say I saw her. La vi or I saw him. Lo vi.


why is it "lo" instead of "el?"


LO/him is the objectform of ÉL/he


Thanks for explaining


I assume hace poco is an idiom. Would a local use it the same as recientemente?


Is the 'hace' the hint that it's her/him/them sgl. ? I'm not sure how the 'him' comes into it otherwise.


LO/ him is the direct objectform of él. Hace is he makes/ she makes (from the verb hacer) or ago. Poco is a little. Hence HACE POCO is a little ago e.g. recently


Why not yo instead of lo


Lo=him is the direct objectform of él=he, and can never be replaced with yo = I


I thought lo meant "it" ?


It can mean either "it" (as long as the noun it represents is masculine in Spanish), "him", or even stand for "usted" which would make it "you". "Lo entiendo." can mean "I understand "it." many times unless we were just talking about him, then it could mean "I understand him." or if you were just explaining something to me, then it could mean "I understand you." Again for the second two sentences, "I understand it." can often work too, meaning "I understand what he was talking about." or "I understand what you were talking about." So, that is the more common translation for that particular sentence. If we are talking about her, or something that is feminine in Spanish, then we would use "la". So the English "it" might be "lo" or "la" depending on which gender it is in Spanish, because everything is either masculine or feminine in Spanish.


Thank you for your kind response, it is as you say trying to remember everything is Masculine or feminine


Why not recientmente


i saw him just now? what kind of an answer is that. I thought I saw him seldom would be ok


"seldom" would mean "not often" and refers to a repetitive occurrence while this is about one occurrence which happened recently.

"hace poco" = "recientemente"

"a little bit ago", "a little while ago", or "recently"


We just need to learn their expression for "ago" which is "hace".


Find this male voice unclear!!!


English people would not say a little bit ago"


Doesn't 'lo' translate to 'it'? I get "I saw it recently" from Google.


How do we make sure its him or her we saw recently? Can anyone enligtened me with this please?


LO is him, LA is her if they are direct objects. See more in

Direct Object Pronouns: Part I - https://studyspanish.com/grammar/lessons/dopro1

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