Does this remind anyone else of an old, historical courthouse council meeting? "slam, slam, slam (gavel) - The men have spoken." :D
Does anyone else hear "Les hommes m'ont parlée"? I could swear that there is an 'm' sound in front of the 'ont' here.
Personally I do not hear it. What you must be hearing is the 'm' ending of the word "hommes". Since "ont" begins with a vowel the consonant 'm' flows into the 'o'. And when someone speaks fluently, they don't necessarily pause between words to completely separate them.
yes, now that you mention it...but only when the female voice says it (on this page). On the main page, the male voice says 'ont'.
In present perfect, after the auxiliary, you need the past participle of the verb, which happens to be "spoken" ("spoke" is the past simple tense).
From http://french.about.com/od/grammar/a/passecompose_2.htm : "When the auxiliary verb is être, the past participle must agree with the subject. When the auxiliary verb is avoir, the past participle may have to agree with its direct object.". In this example, avoir is the auxiliary verb, and there is no direct object, so the past participle is simply parlé.
Except for languages and in passive with the verb être: Plusieurs langues sont parlées.
"were speaking" is continuous and back translates to an imperfect "parlaient".
Not all men in the world are concerned here; only a specific group of them = the men
I have the new version with various words to choose from. I chose "The men have talked." but would it be possible to say "The men talked"?
Yes, the French passé composé can be a correct translation for a past simple or present perfect tense.
"Les Hommes" is pronounced "le zom", but can the s at the end of hommes also be pronounced with the "ont" as "zont"?
In other words "Le zom zont parlé"?