"Ydy hi'n ddrama Gymraeg?"
Translation:Is it a Welsh-language play?
12 CommentsThis discussion is locked.
Sometimes, "Welsh play" is dismissed in favour of "Welsh language play" but nowhere is "iaith" mentioned
See my comment above. In this case the word used clearly suggests Welsh language is meant although I agree that Welsh play seems to be a perfectly good translation. I suppose the course creators wish to demonstrate this subtlety of the language.
If that's the case, the course notes should teach the subtlety before testing us on it.
They do - https://www.duolingo.com/skill/cy/Work-1/tips-and-notes
To find the course notes generally, go to https://forum.duolingo.com/topic/924/hot and see 'Course tips and notes'. The 'duome' link there is useful for browsing all the notes in one place. We recommend reading the notes for each new section as you start it.
I think I raised a "my answer should be accepted" on this for the same reason. However there is some subtle meaning here: Cymraeg means Welsh but more with the sense of Welsh language. The word Cymreig means Welsh with more of the sense of being from Wales. Thus there is a subtle meaning of "Welsh language" being conveyed here.
"Is it a Welsh play?" can mean "Ydy hi'n ddrama Gymraeg" or "Ydy hi'n ddrama Gymreig" or "Ydy hi'n ddrama o Gyrmu" (Not sure about the last one, but I think "Ydy hi'n ddrama Cyrmu" would be "the Welsh play.")
Anyway, since one meaning of "Is it a Welsh play?" is "Ydy hi'n ddrama Gymraeg?", it should be accepted as a translation, IMO.
All subtleties aside, this is not something an English speaker would say, even when stressing the use of the Welsh language. They'd say, "is the play in Welsh?"or just "Is it a Welsh spoken play". Very unnatural to use "Welsh-language" in English. But then again English is a very unnatural language, of course.
Suprised that ddrama is mutated here as it is an indefinite singular feminine noun in this instance.
When yn is used to introduce the predicate it causes a soft mutation except for ll and rh.