Anyone wanna explain why "Teganau" without two N's is a correct answer? Is it dialectal, or something? (Is dialectal even a word? xD )
I'm confused by this also.
(but dialectal is a word) ;)
http://welsh-dictionary.ac.uk/gpc/gpc.html , http://geiriadur.bangor.ac.uk/ , and http://www.geiriadur.net/index.php all agree that the plural is "teganau".
Why would it have two N's?
The lessons here did spell it with two N's, and I recall most Welsh plurals having two N's when there's one N in the base word... i.e., "awyrennau", "orennau", et cetera.
Funnily enough, GPC has orenau, geiriadur.net has orennau. Odd. Which of them is correct, I wonder? Are they both?
I am just commenting to see this discussion. :)
On a different subject: I gave the ' Dw i eisiau teganau. ' answer, but it was refused. It seems I should have said 'Dw i'n moyn teganau.' Why? I have reported this.