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  5. "Mi es i i'r caffi."

"Mi es i i'r caffi."

Translation:I went to the café.

January 30, 2016



What's the difference if we omit 'mi' here?


"Mi" is an affirmative marker. It makes it a little more explicit that you're using the positive form and not the negative form. ("Mi" also causes a soft mutation, but that wouldn't affect "Es i", so you don't notice it here.) I don't think it's any more correct, or even more emphatic; it just makes it harder to miss the distinction in speech.


Nice to see such a thorough answer here. Although, I think correctness is binary. Maybe that's just me.


Does the introductory mi apply only to the first person singular? The examples in the course notes are all in this person and there is no hint there as to whether or not other persons have other forms. Are there parallel but different markers for 'you', 'he/she/it' etc.?


No, it's also mi est ti, mi aeth o, ....

Similarly, fe (for those who use that particle) is not just third person singular (fe aeth e) but also all the others (e.g. fe es i, fe est ti, ...).


Thank you! That is very helpful to know. Perhaps it would have emerged later in the course in any event, but I like to be able to see the overall pattern behind the individual examples if possible.

  • 2450

The Welsh for adults courses teach 'mi es i' etc in the North and 'es i' in the South.

The South Wales introductory 'fe' is not heard very much but the North Wales 'mi' is very much a part of the language.


I wonder whether the similarity of the particules mi, fe to the pronouns mi, fe is coincidence or not!

As far as I can tell from GPC, those preverbal particles did come from "I" and "he", respectively, originally but later lost those connotations and came to be used for all persons.

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