"I am never home."

Translation:Nigdy nie ma mnie w domu.

January 30, 2016

This discussion is locked.


can you say "nigdy nie jestem w domu"?


You can but it means something else.

Nie ma mnie w domu is about your home and you not being there. (your home does not have you inside)

Nie jestem w domu is about you being somewhere that is not home.


Yes but both meanings can be traslated as 'I'm never at home' in English. 'My home never has me in it' would sound very strange in English.


I am on the fence about the whole construction "Nie jestem w domu", but with "nigdy" it sounds too strange, I think.


okay, thanks for the explanation!


I don't know if I understand the distinction between the two translations. If your house doesn't have you inside it then you are obviously somewhere else.


I am from Polan and i do this test for fun and i think we can say "nigdy nie jestem w domu" or "nigdy nie ma mnie w domu" :)


but i am at home as a positive contrary would be jestem w domu wouldnt it? how come i use my home does not have me only when negating?


Welcome to Polish ;) These are just the constructions we use.

W biurze jest ser. = There is cheese in the office.

W biurze nie ma sera. = There is no cheese in the office.


gee.. thanks, i guess :P


Thanks; this actually does explain it: that in effect "nie ma" is the opposite of "jest". I remember from my 1980s Polish class examples of shopping expressions: "Jest dzisiaj szyńka?" "Nie, nie ma szyńki." I've just never seen it before in reference to people.


Small correction: there's no softening in "szynka", it's a normal "n" :)

1980s? Yes, there was no ham... there was almost nothing at all in the stores...


Yeah, I realized that the "ń" was a mistake, but too late.


One of the most annoying statements by teachers of Polish is that Polish uses personal pronouns much less than English, then leave you to crash from one situation to another where, in fact, you do need them.


Subject pronouns. And possessive pronouns. How could you omit a pronoun here?


It typically doesn't use them when they are indicated by a conjugated verb or can be inferred from the context.


Jestem z Polski.Hejka będę waszym nauczycielem xD


Why is it not: Nigdy nie jestem w domu


What about "Nigdy mnie nie ma w domu"?


I tried 'nigdy mnie nie ma w domu' and it was rejected.


It sounds as if you were to say in French "Il n'y a jamais de "moi" a la maison". The peculiarities of Polish are fascinating!


Why do we have to add "ma" in the sentence?


In this sentence you're saying that the house doesn't "have" (ma) you in it.

It's the same as in another sentence, "w mojej lodówce nie ma mięsa", literally "in my fridge doesn't have meat". If there is meat there you say "jest", if there isn't you say "nie ma".


Is "w domu" the subject of the verb "ma" in this sentence? This seems strange because "at home" or "in home" is not really a noun. Why is it not just "dom nigdy nie ma mnie"?


Thats a prime example of why this language is so hard for a native german or good english speaker:

Direct translation:

Nigdy nie ma mnie w domu. - Niemals nicht hat mich in Haus. Nigdy nie ma mnie w domu. - Never not have me in house.

Actual translation:

I am never home.

No questions. :D


How about this sentence: Zuhause gibt es keine Handschuhe.

Literal translation: To house gives it no hand-shoes.

Actual translation: There are no gloves at home.

How is that better? :D


So, I noticed here that "ma" is used to mean "to be", or some form like that, and I've seen it before in Polish. For instance, there was a song title "Nie ma fal", which meant "There are no waves", even though it would literally translate to "It doesn't have waves".

I'm just curious how "ma" and other forms of miec can mean "to be", and how to know when to use that vs. forms of "byc".


They don't really mean that, apart from the exact construction "nie ma" which expresses the lack of something ("nie ma X" with X in Genitive = "there is no X"). Or that someone is not present ("nie ma Adama" = literally "there is no Adam", although of course that's weird English).

Other than that, you use "być" in a logical way ;)


Would "Nigdy mnie nie ma w domu" be correct?


I think it's okay, and it's accepted.


So... Domu is technically the subject, but because of the w it is in the locative case? And mnie is accusative because I am the object, or is it genitive because of the negation and this is sort of a noun phrase?


'W domu' is an adverbial of place, hence neither subject nor object.

'Nie ma mnie' literally translates to 'it does not have me', so 'mnie' is technically the object and the subject is an implied/omitted dummy subject.


Not sure why my response is incorrect. I think the correct polish answer would translate as "I am never in my home".


What was your answer?

And the Polish sentence, translated literally, just wouldn't make sense in English, it's like "There never has me at home" or something like that.


"I am never AT home". I tking the preposition is needed


It's not. It's surely correct and accepted, but English commonly uses "home" for "at home".


Wrong translation into English


Cool, do you have any proof of that?


This exercise asks you to translate into Polish, not English.

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