Is querer que a common combination? I don't really understand the purpose of the que in this sentence.
EDIT: answered my own question. Here's a good link: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7751/que-after-querer
I think the trigger that makes this phrase subjunctive is 'Quiero que', because this makes the phrase rather like expressing an opinion; ‘I want that ..(something happens)'. In modern English we often leave out 'that', but it's still implied.
When it's been made subjunctive (using Quiero que, Espero que, etc), the next verb changes (in Spanish); ..she writes - escribe (indicative), becomes; ..she writes - escriba (subjunctive).
No. In "I want her to write...", the "her" is the indirect object. "For her" is a prespositional phrase, with "her" as the object of a preposition ("of").
Ella me escribe. = She writes to me. So, if it is something I want to happen escribe has to be escriba. Is this correct? And furthermore, Ella no me escribe. = She does not write to me. If I do not want something to happen the form changes again? If I want to say "I don't want her to write to me," it would require a different conjugation which I could not find. Is this correct?
The negative sentence would translate No quiero que ella me escriba'. It is in the present subjunctive tense because you can not control the person. You can want it wish it be true but there is a chance that she may continue to write. In Spanish it literally says ' I don't want that she writes to me. In English you would say 'I don't want her to write to me' instead because it sounds better, so we use the infinitive 'to write'.