Is querer que a common combination? I don't really understand the purpose of the que in this sentence.
EDIT: answered my own question. Here's a good link: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7751/que-after-querer
The "que" its common used with another verb, is used to make specific references about something
For example Quiero que tu.. i want that you.. Veo que eres...i see that you are... Siento que estoy... i feel I'm..
Am I correct in saying that the ¨que¨ is there because it is necessary for a subjunctive clause to be introduced?
"que" is there because it means "that". In Spanish, the "that" usually isnt ommitted like it is in english
Yeah, I was familiar with this structure, it makes perfect grammatical sense, the previous sentences used this structure and now it isn't accepted anymore! :^(
jennesy, that is what the sentence says literally. There are two clauses being connected with 'que' and the second clause begins with 'she'. With that being said, the literal English translation seems a bit awkward.
Why is this imperative? My gut (which must be wrong) says that present tense "escribe" makes more sense.
I think the trigger that makes this phrase subjunctive is 'Quiero que', because this makes the phrase rather like expressing an opinion; ‘I want that ..(something happens)'. In modern English we often leave out 'that', but it's still implied.
When it's been made subjunctive (using Quiero que, Espero que, etc), the next verb changes (in Spanish); ..she writes - escribe (indicative), becomes; ..she writes - escriba (subjunctive).
i said " I would like her to write me". Is this wrong or should I send a request to DL?
I agree with your answer. The subjunctive tense. I wrote that 2 years ago. I'm still trying.
Wow! I'm new to DL. I hope I'm still around 2 years from now. Good luck!
Is it an indirect object pronoun that could also make the sentence mean "I want her to write FOR me"?
No. In "I want her to write...", the "her" is the indirect object. "For her" is a prespositional phrase, with "her" as the object of a preposition ("of").
I think you would have to say "Quiero que ella escriba para mí" to make that clear.
Ella me escribe. = She writes to me. So, if it is something I want to happen escribe has to be escriba. Is this correct? And furthermore, Ella no me escribe. = She does not write to me. If I do not want something to happen the form changes again? If I want to say "I don't want her to write to me," it would require a different conjugation which I could not find. Is this correct?
The negative sentence would translate No quiero que ella me escriba'. It is in the present subjunctive tense because you can not control the person. You can want it wish it be true but there is a chance that she may continue to write. In Spanish it literally says ' I don't want that she writes to me. In English you would say 'I don't want her to write to me' instead because it sounds better, so we use the infinitive 'to write'.