"Dw i'n hoffi Megan."

Translation:I like Megan.

February 5, 2016

14 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/riddlemethishan

In school we used to use 'Dwi'n' more than 'Dw i'n' but we also used 'Rydw i'n' in some contexts. My teacher told me there were differences between north and south dialects too with spelling?

February 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/clochan1

What does the '' n after dw and dewi mean please? I'm confused

February 22, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/mizinamo

It doesn't have a meaning as such, only a grammatical function.

It's a bit like asking what the "to" means in "I want to swim" -- it just connects the "want" and the "swim", and here, the "yn" connects the "to be" verb (e.g. "dw i, dach chi, mae e, ...") with the main verb (e.g. "hoffi, bwyta, yfed, ...").

February 22, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/clochan1

Thank you, dance

February 23, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/clochan1

Danke

February 23, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/lily_cloud

ThanksĂ—100

July 3, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/antoniojack

Why is Dw and i seperated? Like Dw i and Dw i'n?

February 5, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/EllisVaughan

"Dw i" and "Dwi" are both the same thing. Most younger people use the "dwi" variant whilst older people and people who have learned through courses are more likely to use "Dw i". They both come from the formal "Rydw i" which first became "Dw i" and now "Dwi" as one word.

February 5, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/antoniojack

So basically just a spelling reform for convenience? They aren't separate words, and it means "I" right?

February 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/mizinamo

They are separate words, at least in origin.

I imagine it's like how "I am" (two words, two syllables) turns into "I'm" (one syllable) in English. Not sure whether to count that as one word or two: there are no spaces, but the apostrophe marks the original break.

Similarly "Dw i" might be pronounced "Dwi" and then later spelled that way.

February 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/deserttitan

In 1900/1901 in the United States when "I am" started to change to "I'm" you can see in literature at that time that they would write it as "I 'm" with a space between the "I" and the "m". It was only a year later that novels started writing it as "I'm" without the space. So it makes sense that this has happened in Welsh. I almost want to blame Celtic peoples for our contractions in English since both Irish and Welsh are notorious for them in their languages.

February 8, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/antoniojack

Good explanation. Thanks again :)

February 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/EllisVaughan

yeah it's just since people pronounce it that way so it became one word.

February 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Nige101265

Have you told Megan?

February 15, 2017
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