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"If you burned the newspaper, it would be impossible for you to read it from now on."

Translation:Gazeteyi yaktıysan artık onu okuman imkansız.

February 7, 2016



what is the differnce between yakmak and yanmak


yakmak = to make something burn (active) yanmak = to burn (passive)


Yapmak = to make Not yakmak*


I)Gazeteyi / yaksaydın/ bundan böyle /onu okuman/ senin için/ imkansız /olurdu (newspaper)/ (burn part) /(from now on) /(reading it part)/(for you) (impossible) / (would be part)

II)Eğer gazeteyi yaksaydın bundan böyle onu okuman imkansız olurdu

I,as a native Turkish speaker, believe that the direct translation of the sentence should be one of these (listed above)


I wrote "Gazeteyi yaktıysan onu artık okuman imkansız" and was marked incorrect. Is that word order unacceptable?


It is true. We can say that.


This was my answer: "gezeteyı yaktıysan, artık senin için onu okurmak imkansiz olur" according to hints. But I don't see these words in the CORRECT Turkish SOLUTIONS: "it would be", "for you". In addition, I confused about how is "to read it" translated to "onu okuman".


My personal opinion is that, if you had said "okumak" instead of "okurmak", your sentence should have been accepted.

"to read it" alone can't be correctly translated to "onu okuman". But note that it is "you to read it". You might think of it as "your-reading-it" if you like. "It's impossible for me to read it." ---> "Onu okumam imkansız".


Thank you so much for your help.

Now, (("Onu okumam imkansız". "It's impossible for me to read it.")) is more reasonable than (("onu okuman imkansız." " it would be impossible for you to read it.")).

But I'm still confused about "onu okuman", and adding "it would be" & "for you" to the translated sentence.


Now, (("Onu okumam imkansız". "It's impossible for me to read it.")) is more reasonable than (("onu okuman imkansız." " it would be impossible for you to read it.")).

The only difference I see apart from the personal pronoun is "would be" part. So it can be translated as "onu okuman imkansız olur(du)" as you suggested. I think olur/would be part is implied due to the condition in the first part of the sentence, so it can be omitted (in English as well). The sentence is not "Onu okuman imkansız.", but rather "Gazeteyi yaktıysan artık onu okuman imkansız".


You know there are two types of condition: real and unreal.

Chech it out here:


So, I prefer you (devs) differentiate between them by adding "olur(du)".


Okay, I had to go through the relevant sections of grammars of both languages. :) Please note that I'm not a course developer.

Imagine this: "Gazeteyi yaksaydın, onu okuman imkasız olurdu". This would be translated as "If you had burnt the newspaper, it would have been impossible for you to read it.". That is an example of imaginary past conditional and olurdu or something similar is required here. Note that yaksaydın and yaktıysan are different and yaksaydın implies that you didn't burn it.

Our sentence is a bit more complicated, so I want to simplify it a bit: "If you burned the newspaper, you couldn't read it." -> "Gazeteyi yaktıysan, okuyamazsın". Note that I didn't say "okuyamazdın". Because that part would refer to an unreal situation. In this sentence, however, there is indeed a chance that you actually burned it. For the same reason "olurdu" is missing in the original sentence.

Finally, in the "...it would be impossible for you to read it", "it would" part is not translated because the translation would be "okuman imkansız olurdu" which in turn refers to an unreal situation. But the situation can as well be real here. If the condition is true, very much likely is the result, there is not much ambiguity nor imaginary situation. In English you have to put something like would, could etc but not in Turkish.


"for you to read it" means; "onu okuman" = "senin onu okuman"


Can someone analyse the word "okuman"


"okumak" is the infinitive -- "to read"

'okuma" is the gerund -- "reading"

"-m" is the possessive ending -- "my"

"okumam" -- "my reading"

here you are saying something like "my reading of this is impossible" :)


these big sentences only work when it's a multiple choice question


Why is it wrong to add 'olur' on the end of this? I wrote 'gazeteyi yaktıysan, artık onu okuman imkansız olur' and it was wrong.


"Gazeteyi yaktıysan artık onu okuman imkansız".

In this sentence, "artık onu okuman imkansız" translates as"you can no longer read it" (it is no longer possible for you to read it), but this creates a tense disagreement with the first part of the sentence..."If you burned the newspaper". This tense disagreement is ungrammatical in English.

It must be translated:

"If you burned the newspaper, you would no longer be able to read it".


I think this is type 2. So incident has never taken place. It is only an imagination. Am I wrong?


Can we say 'Gazeteyi yaktıysan, onu okuman artık imkansız.' ?


Yes, it's fine.

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