I would suggest that "Not one of them is here." and "None of them are here." to be two of the most accurate translations for this (as speaker of British English), but it seems that "None of them is here." is offered as the best translation. This, to me, sounds a little strange (as if the subject does not agree with the verb).
Just my own, personal opinion.
Technically, "none of them is here" is correct English, because "none" is a contraction of "not one".
"None of them are here" is perfectly correct, too. The pronoun "none" is sometimes a plural pronoun.
As an American English speaker, I feel like "None of them are here" is more correct (in casual speech at least), just because the "them" is plural.
But "not one ... is" We just speak ungrammatically and find it not unusual to the ear.
But "none" isn't an abbreviation of "not one", it's its own separate word.
"them" is the object of the preposition "of." The verb agrees to the singular subject "none." The trick I learned regarding prepositions and verbs when learning subject-verb agreement is to completely remove the preposition/object of preposition and see if the subject-verb relationship still makes sense.
I understand this. I understand "Not one... is" is correct; however, if I were to use "none" instead of "not one", then "none... are" sounds correct while "none... is" sounds wrong (AmE speaker here)
You can feel like ice cream, but not like something is more correct. Only because you are a native speaker, does not mean that you speak correctly. It is 'none' that is the subject here, not 'them'.
Also "Not one of them is here" should be added since as some of the natives mentioned, "none" comes from "not one".
As a native British English speaker, "None of them is here" is wrong because just before, 'is' you are saying 'them' which makes the 'none' plural, like 'none of the 3 people are here'.
For 'is' to be correct, 'them' would have to change to 'it', 'None of it is here', for example, 'None of the (one, single...) cake is here'.
Many English speakers say 'is' when they should say 'are'.
'None' can refer to singular or plural, the use of 'them' instead of 'it' made it plural, which means that, 'are' is the only correct word to use in this sentence if 'them' remains unchanged.
Does this also apply to the non-negated? One of them ARE here? Or do "the rules" change based on the presence/absence of a negation?
"One" is always singular, including in the phrase "not one". "None" is sometimes used as singular and sometimes as plural.
"Don't have here none of them" is the literal translation, but would be a perfectly acceptable sentence in some dialects of the american south. Definitely not anywhere else, but it's food for thought...
Strictly speaking none is singular. There is no particular logic explanation for this, it's just a rule of English grammar. Many native speakers also make mistakes with this.
Okay, I have a question. For goodness' sake, why do you think that "none of them are here" is a mistake? What makes you think that "none" cannot be a plural pronoun sometimes?
No, despite it historically being a contraction of "not one," "none" is now mostly treated just like "some." That is, as an amount, plural for countable nouns.
I'm guessing "żadnego z nich" is in the accusative because of "ma"... so if I wanted to say something like "none of them like apples", would "żaden z nich nie lubi jabłek" be correct? (given the preferred English translation, I'm assuming the Polish sentence would take the singular?)
Starting from the end: your sentence about apples is perfectly correct.
Now, to the Accusative thing... no, it's Genitive. "mieć" (to have) takes Accusative, true. But it's negated here, and negated Accusative = Genitive (don't forget that it's the only case that changes when negated).
Also, as the word "żaden" by definition is a negation, and negated Accusative = Genitive... it's very very rare to use "żaden" in Accusative. I guess it only can happen when Accusative is needed by a preposition, not verb (it doesn't change then). So, for example "Nie czekam na żaden stół!" (I am not waiting for any table!).
my answer of "there is none of them here" was marked wrong, and grammatically-incorrect "there are none of them here" was offered as the solution. "None" is singular, as noticed by others in the above discussion. Treating "none" as plural may sound acceptable to some native speakers (whose ears are by now used to such concoctions as a singular noun/indefinite pronoun, followed by a singular verb, followed by a plural possessive pronoun/adjective (as in "a student likes their teacher")) but is grammatically incorrect.
Added "There is none of them here", it was just an oversight. However, the singular/plural thing seems to not be that easy. As I was told by a native: "As for the singular/plural question, that's a never-ending debate between grammarians and we'll never be able to please everyone, my suggestion would be to accept both as likely to produce the least complaints."
I agree; 25 years ago, "everybody wants their child to succeed" would be marked incorrect, in favor of "everybody wants his child to succeed" but ask a native speaker today, and he will likely tell you that there is nothing wrong with the former, while the latter is either "unnatural-sounding" or worse, "sexist."
You're right. Using the masculine singular for "everybody" is archaic. It may be grammatically acceptable, but socially it is not. You could say, "everyone wants his or her child to succeed", if you wanted to please everyone!
Ha! The "divers" genders (as all variations are referred to in new German law) would not agree with you. His her or applicable gender will do. Or you could use the Swedish "hen" or the English "their" or just be non politically correct, which is sometimes hides sexism and sometimes does not.
Best--Everyone wants a child....
Or simply ask the readers ahead of time ;-) what will not offend said readers.
Sounds unnatural. "There is none of them here" is what you want. One can, however, imagine a situation in which your phrase would be appropriate. Say, you are looking for 3 friends of yours, and you are expecting to find one of them behind the curtain. You are about to draw the curtain back, and begin announcing "Here is... ". You draw the curtain, and there is nobody there. So then, you could finish by saying "...none of them!"
It has just rejected my 'there is not any one of them here' which as a UK speaker I thought was simply a more emphatic way of putting 'none of them is here'. Have I misunderstood something?
What is the different between "Nie ma tu żadnego z nich." and "Nie ma tu żadnej z nich." Is it the gender? "żadnego" for a group a male people and "żadnej" for a group of female people and a mixed group???
You almost got it right! But for mixed groups we would use the male form, but yes, „żadnego” is for males, and „żadnej” is for females”.
The phrasing of this really threw me off, although perhaps correct, "none of them are here" sounds more natural
The forms of "żaden" pose a huge difficulty in translating into English as apparently Polish and English work very differently here...
"None of them are here", surely. "None of them is here" is not grammatically correct.
In actual usage, the word "none" seems to be used both ways. When "none" has a singular referent, it's always treated as singular; when "none" has a plural referent, it's usually treated as plural but sometimes as singular. I found this page with more information: https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/1425/none-as-plural-indefinite-pronoun
"none ... is" is more grammatically correct because none derives from "not one". That being said, it's generally acceptable to use it with the "not any" meaning as well.
„Żadnego z nich tu nie ma”. I'm not sure if it's a good word order in all situation, but it's technically grammatically correct.