"Er isst keine rote Suppe."
Would you have written: he eats no red soup? Awkward English, so: He does not eat red soup.
it would be best in english if translated "He does not eat red soup" thats what the 'keine' is for
Why does sometimes "kein" indicate that there is an article in the translation and sometimes not?
Kein is used in both situations: either instead of "not a/an" (it means the negative + article) or instead of "not" in case there is no article. To differ between those two situations you have to know the context and the following noun and then it is the same like in normal spoken English. You're not putting the article when it is not common.
How come that in this case, it is "Er isst keine rote Suppe" - the "keine " is what concerns me. In previous sentence about dark beer, the solution was "Wir haben kein schwarzes Bier" - why not "keines" then? I mean, in the 1st sentence the 'keine' takes on the fem accus ending per following noun die Suppe. In the 2nd sentence, the 'kein' does not take on the appropriate neuter accus ending of the following noun das Bier. I am sure I've missed something somewhere, but for the life of me....where ?!? Please help.
Suppe is feminine :)
Edit: Also mixed inflection http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_declension#Mixed_inflection.5B6.5D
Thnx so much :) The link is where I could not find the answer to my particular question. Usually I find wiki very informative tho.
Sorry I didn't understand what you mean. You couldn't find it? It's in mixed inflection.
I did find the table and the"euer klares Wasser" (mixed/accus/neuter) which I believe is the appropriate example for "kein schwarzes Bier"
I do understand the "rote Suppe" sentence above because it follows my logic. However, the preceding practice sentence does not follow the same logic. I should have posted my comment in the previous exercise, but I am a slow thinker anymore. My bad.
Now my problem.
Point 1. How do you say "We do not have any beer." ??? Isn't it: "Wir haben keines Bier" ??? - at least that's what I think is correct. If I am wrong, my whole problem is pointless, and I must review my accusative weaknesses :)
If I am right, however, my question is:
Why not "Wir haben keines schwarzes Bier" ??? Why is it "Wir haben kein schwarzes Bier." ??? Is it just convention and thus a rule because an indefinite article precedes an accusative adjective which precedes a neuter noun ????
Sorry for being annoying.
Take a look at the site. "Wir haben keines Bier" is "strong inflection". When you add an adjective, the declesion goes to the adjective.