Yo lo recuerdo a él.
Why is "lo" in this sentence and what does it mean? It seems like it's repeating the same meaning of "a él" - to him.
Actually, "a él" is repeating the meaning of "lo". You could say "Yo lo recuerdo." and be grammatically correct. The sentence would also be understood, in the right context. The "a él" just emphasizes or specifies who you remember. It would be grammatically incorrect (though understood) to say "Yo recuerdo a él."
Lo is the singular direct object pronoun. It can mean him/her/it/you(formal). The purpose of the "a él" is to specify or to emphasize that you remember "him". It is only there for clarity. For example if you were just to blurt out "yo lo recuredo" out of nowhere, no one would know exactly what you were talking about. You would need to add the "a él" here. However, if you were talking to someone about a little boy who moved away then "yo lo recuredo" would be understood just fine even without the "a él". Until you get a better feel for the language it's probably better to always specify the object.
That is right. In Spanish they sometimes repeat things. So 'lo' and 'a él' in fact does mean the same.
It seems to me that Recuerdo a él would be grammatically correct. There are songs entitled "Recuerdo a mi padre". There is a website called "Recuerdo a mi profe". Both these examples show that recordar does not require a pronoun to be grammatical. Therefore, I don't think any of these answers satisfies why the "lo" is there other than to add emphasis.
You must differ the cases when the direct object is a 1. personal PROnoun like él and the cases when the object is a 2.noun like padre, profe, placed 2A before the verb or placed 2B after verb. The unstressed pronoun object form is mandatory in the cases 1 and 2A but forbidden in the case 2B
Lo recuerdo a él, case 1, a pronoun object
A mi padre lo recuerdo case 2A: noun object before the verb
Recuerdo a mi padre case 2B: noun object after the verb
Real Academia Española:
I didn't understand your explanation of case 1. Can you give some examples?
Sorry I was unclear when I said pronoun I meant personal pronoun (yo, tú, él, ella, usted, nosotros, ...). If some of them is an object then you must use the unstessed object form (me,te, lo/le, la/le see the RAE link I gave)
Do you see me? No I do not see you but I hear you.
¿Me ves (a mí)? No te veo (a ti) pero te oigo (a ti).
The stressed object form (a mí, a ti) can either be used or not.
How can it be grammatically correct to have two direct objects? I don't understand how the verb can have two separate direct object "slots". It would be somewhat comparable to saying "I wrote him a letter to him", with two indirect objects. How does Spanish make this work?