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  5. "Fi sy 'ma."

"Fi sy 'ma."

Translation:It is me here.

February 27, 2016



Would "Here I am" be a possible translation? I mean, it's normal English, but does it say the same thing as the Welsh sentence? What do native Welsh-speakers think?


I'd get a second opinion to mine, but I would translate "Here I am" as something like "Dyma fi".


Diolch! So maybe "Fi sy 'ma" would strictly speaking best be translated by something like "It's ME", i.e. not someone else, but it is difficult to fit "here" into the English expression, unless one says "It's me who's here", which I suppose purists would object to! Sorry to be so finicky!


Yeah I personally wouldn't have though translate as "I am here" instead I would only think to translate it as "It's me". I would use "Fi sy 'ma" if I were to go into a room and somebody asked "Pwy sy 'na" (Who is it).


Another opinion if you want it - I'm a native Welsh speaker. I gave the answer "It's me here" which was accepted, and sounds like fairly natural English to me.


So how would you say the non-emphatic "I'm here"? For example, you walk in the house after work and announce that you're home. "Dw i'n 'ma?" or is it more complicated than that? Or similarly, you're looking for the cat and when you find her you call through to the others looking for her that she's here: "Mae'r gath yn 'ma"?


"I'm here" would be "Dw i (y)ma". No "yn" is needed since "yma" is a preposition and prepositions don't take "yn". "Mae'r gath (y)ma" would be the other sentence you gave.


I've a bone to pick with this one. Despite being counted as incorrect, "It's me" (or the more grammatically correct "It is I") seems, to my ear, the most natural translation of this, especially given that "It's Owen" is accepted as a correct answer for the adjacent example of "Owen sy 'ma." Well, which is it? Is the "here" requisite for proper translation, or is it not, because it surely is not correct in one case but not the other?

Besides, who ever says "It is me here"? I have very rarely, if ever, encountered that sort of usage by a native English speaker. "I am here" or "Here I am" certainly, but those each have both distinct meanings and translations from this sentence.

A tangential question: Is "Fi sy'n" a properly constructed sentence? Or "Fi sy"? And would both or either translate to "It's me"?


I wrote 'It is I who am here' since 'It is me' is grammatically incorrect. It was marked as wrong.


As far as I know, It is I has never been the predominant form in Middle or Modern English. It is the form that has been taught for a few centuries by people better trained in Latin grammar than in English grammar. Because English was regarded as peasant speak they felt entitled to impose the Latin rules on English.

Attitudes to prescriptive grammar have now changed and most people accept that what is usually said is, by definition, correct. This is the approach taken to Welsh grammar on this course.

I agree that they should accept It is I because it is an accepted form, but I do not accept that It is me is grammatically incorrect.

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Embrace and share regional language differences
A language can have many words, accents and ways to say the same thing. We think that’s one of the wonders of languages. Approach these conversations with an open mind and attitude.

I have always assumed that the reason we do not get this 'right' (by Latin or German standards) in English is the simple fact that English was predominantly developed by people who had previously spoken a Celtic language (both Welsh-like and Gaelic-like) who did not distinguish between I and me.


You are completely right. I know that this course is only for conversational Welsh. My degree was in English and I always think of English as a bastard language. Middle English itself was a conglomeration of other languages. We only have to think why we needed a term like Anglo-Saxon to describe the 'English'. Johnson et al. were trying to make sense of it by applying Latin grammar (I also studied Latin and Greek for years) with some success. They could not deal with the various grammars incorporated into English (Like the Scandinavian regular past tenses 'fought' 'sought' taught' 'caught') but they tried. I always say 'It was I', 'It was she' in speech but understand that formal grammar is not taught as being relevant. All I want is that 'It was I' be acknowledged as a correct answer. I would never say 'It was me', as that sounds so foreign to me. However, it is a sad day when written language is completely disregarded, as that is the beginning of the end of literature.


That makes it much clearer, at least to me! I think I may have put "It's me" as my answer, but I'm not sure. Anyway, Duolingo counted it as wrong, whatever it was!


Yes, I put "it is me", but it seems it doesn't mean that. Oh well.


is it just that duo wants us to translate the ' 'ma' as well 'it's me'?

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