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  5. "Do you have coffee after you…

"Do you have coffee after you get up?"

Translation:Wyt ti'n cael coffi ar ôl i ti godi?

March 1, 2016



Is the ...wyt ti'n ...versus ...Dych chi'n... A formal/ informal or a north/south difference?


It is singular/plural or informal/formal.

wyt ti? is singular informal (like Spanish ).

dych chi? is either plural informal, or formal (for singular or plural). So like Spanish-from-Spain vosotros, Usted, Ustedes.

In the north, you may hear dach chi? for dych chi?.


I want to ask the same question as drewissimo33 - why is it "ti" at the start of the sentence, but "chi" at the end? I wrote "wyt ti'n cael coffi ar ol i ti godi" and it was marked wrong with the second "ti" crossed through, and the "correct" answer giving "chi" in its place. I understand the singular/plural/informal/formal usage but not why the forms are mixed up in this sentence.


That sounds like an unusual sentence to me as well - most naturally, it would be all ti or all chi but not half and half.

I'd recommend reporting it so that the half-and-half sentence gets taken out and the all-ti version gets put in.


Wyt ti'n cael coffi ar ol i chi godi? can make sense: "Do you (singular) have coffee after you (plural) get up?".

It's like "Do I have coffee after we get up?"

Wyt ti'n cael coffi ar ol i ti godi? shouldn't be marked wrong though!


Is there any context in which "Wyt ti'n cael coffi ar ôl i chi godi?" is not weird, given the use of both "ti" and "chi" in the same sentence? Would it be okay if "chi" were just plural, and not formal, in this context, as in "Do you have coffee after y'all get up?"

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