This sentence sounds very much like a good-natured mother explaining the idea of "homelessness" to her 7-year old son. Without judging the homeless man.
that is a good joke about ambiguity of Polish word "pan". In this sentence it is different way to say "man".
Can one use "pan" as a honorific? For example, can I address someone as, say, "Pan Janowicz" when I would say "Mr. Janowicz" in English?
"This gentleman does not have a home" is the default answer, and therefore 'doesn't' is automatically accepted. This should have worked.
I thought it was strange so I checked it pretty thoroughly. Do with it what you will!
One of the correct variants is "This man has no a home." We do not use the article (a) after NO. The correct answer will be "This man has no home."
So PAN and its related forms can be used as if they were nouns - like Shakespeare writing "You are the cruelest SHE alive" meaning "the cruelest lady"?
Pan really does mean "man", or "mister" or something like that, which is why you use the third person. "Czy pani chce herbatę?" is like saying, "Would madam like some tea?".
Well it is a noun. It can mean "master" in some 'older' contexts, it can be a form of formal "you", and it can be used instead of "man" sometimes.
How come with some verbs, the pronoun "pan" takes the 3rd person plural verb ending, but here it is taking "ma" and not "maja."
Can someone explain?
No, "pan" is definitely one person, so it has to take 3rd person singular.
"panowie", "panie" and "państwo" (gentlemen/ladies/mixed) will take 3rd person plural.
So Pan does not come with its own verb form or an altered verb form like Spanish does (tu tienes... but Usted tiene...), It is simply a different pronoun with same verb form? Do I have this right?
Pan works just like Spanish usted, taking the verb form of the 3rd person, regardless of whether we adress the subject directly (when we would otherwise use 2nd person – like „ty masz”) or we mention "pan" to someone else (when we would use 3rd person anyway – like „on ma”).