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Is there a pattern for conjugating Polish verbs?

Some of the verbs in the Polish course appear to have similar endings when conjugated from what I've seen (e.g. ty often gets -sz like "ty lubisz", my often gets -my like "my mamy", etc.). Does this mean that there is a general pattern for conjugating the verbs like for French verbs, or am I just getting my hopes up a little far?

March 8, 2016



Yes, there are patterns and number of irregular verbs is relatively small. Here you can find list of different types of declensions and conjugations: https://pl.wiktionary.org/wiki/Kategoria:Gramatyka_j%C4%99zyka_polskiego.

Here you can read post about the conjugation of Polish verbs: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/13589661


Yeah and they even resemble other languages. Compare the endings with Latin or French ones.


Latin and French aren't related to Polish. Can you give an example?


They are related, since they all belong to the Indo-European family.


The Indo-European family is very large, and Latin and French (which are Italic languages) are on an entirely different branch from Polish (a Balto-Slavic language).


A Slavic language - while Baltic and Slavic languages share a common ancestor, Slavic languages have branched from Proto-Balto-Slavic language somewhere around 1500-1000BC, forming a Proto-Slavic language that later developed into Common Slavic that is the direct ancestor of all modern Slavic languages.

For the same reason why you generally don't consider French or German related to Polish, when discussing modern Slavic languages(but not their history) it is somehow misguiding to mention this connection, since it is only obvious to linguists at this point, not typical speakers of those languages, like for example a Czech speaker trying to learn Latvian. ;-)


OK since you know Spanish and possibly French- are the conjugation patterns similar?

I am a curious person, so I googled this http://lacina.info.pl/index.php?dzial=gramatyka=tryby

it looks like what Latin and Polish conjunction has in common is distinction to 3 persons singular, 3 persons plural. and as far as I know many Indo-European languages have this? (and English does not)


Ignore my French flag: I started it only as a test to see whether bonus skills purchases are shared across multiple languages (they are not).

The three persons for each number is common I believe. The Latin American Spanish doesn't really use second person plural, but European Spanish does.

Despite my lack of linguistic education, I did notice some similarities in verb stems in Present tense. Second person singular Spanish has -s (compared to Polish -sz). Third person has no ending. First person plural has endings resembling personal pronoun (Polish: my: -my, Spanish: nosotros: -mos).


And. It's no real big step from nous/vous to my/wy really.


That is true, but I doubt you would consider, say, Nepali to be much related to Polish, even though Nepali is Indo-Iranian language(a branch of Indo-European languages), would you? ;-)

Usually when people talk about relationship of languages, they mean closest connections, like Germanic, Celtic, Slavic or Baltic - it that sense, Polish is not much related to French or Latin, just a far removed cousin. ;-)


And yet there exist certain similarities in the family. Something that makes Persian easier to learn for Europeans than Arabic and maybe even easier for Persian to learn an European language than Arabic. It may not be immediately apparent to anyone, but…


there are rules,

you can check conjugation patterns at wiktionary - links to the other ones are at the bottom

also polish grammar in a nutshell from this link has good description of conjunction, and divides verbs in only four groups

also : @vytah's post https://www.duolingo.com/comment/12281032


There are 4 groups (classes) of endings in Present Tense. I wrote a couple of articles about it. You can learn about the Present Tense here https://courseofpolish.com/grammar/tenses/present-tense

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