"On na pewno kocha tego mężczyznę."
Translation:He certainly loves this man.
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If we wanted to replace "certainly" with "for certain", then in my opinion and experience, it would go at the beginning of the sentence.
Anywhere else seems very clumsy and awkward.
It should be...
"For certain he loves this man"
A bit like the American "for sure" (though 'for sure' also works at the end whereas 'for certain' does not)
And there's also a West-(South-)east divide as you can see here:
I shortly heard about these declarations and thought that this is not going to shed a better light on Poland as a country and its people. But to see that there is such a stark difference between the country's Eastern and Western flank... I thought it was scattered all across the country. The declaration itself reminds me of the “nationally rescued zones” (National befreite Zonen) we have in Germany, in Eastern Germany in particular: https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_befreite_Zone (I couldn't find a text in English, unfortunately. The concept itself is that separate villages declared themselves free of anyone that did not follow their far right ideology.)
Whenever such statistical maps are discussed, we often (jokingly or not) say "Widać zabory" (You can see the partitions), because... well, the differences between the lands that used to be under German reign and those under Russian reign are often visible. The Austro-Hungarian ones less, I think.
If anyone doesn't know what I'm talking about, see here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partitions_of_Poland
It would have been surprising if these occupations hadn't left their marks in shape of architecture, in terms of language or otherwise. Just as the Muslim caliphate in Spain left its marks in shape of architecture. I think at least this would be a good reason for me to visit Poland once I am able to be understood in this language: To see how Prussia left its marks in cities like Gdánsk.
Thanks for the information! I appreciate it!
I was told that 'on na pewno tego mężczyznę kocha' would be ok but not very natural. However, if we replace tego mężczyzna for 'go', it must be 'go kocha' and not 'kocha go'. Is this a general rule? If we have the indirect object (?) we put it after the verb, but if we replace it for the pronoun, then it should be before the verb?