"I do not drink coffee before lunch."
Translation:Nie piję kawy przed obiadem.
Is there something wrong with "przed obiadem nie pije kawy"? (Not sure if this is an error, or something I haven't grasped…)
This is a copy of my answer: nie piję kawy przed obiadem. OK, so I don't type with capitals - quicker. But is that now counted as wrong? I honestly can't see any difference between my answer and the given answer, apart from the lack of a first capital letter. Am I missing something?
No, I do not think that anything has changed - neither capitalization nor interpunction matters for the algorithm. Unless I'm unaware of something. So I suspect some bug, there's rarely a day for me without reading a comment like yours. Clearly the engine doesn't work perfectly and from time to time it rejects a correct answer.
The answer it gave for me for the translation from English to Polish is "nie piję kawy przed lunchem." Why "lunchem" and not "obiadem" ? I got it wrong because I misread the statement but was shocked to see the English word "polishized".
An early American "lunch" can be called "lunch" in Polish, especially among young people, although that's not very common. But possible.
Thanks. A lot of English words have crept into many languages. I was just shocked to see it as the official answer instead "obiad".
There is no such word as lunchem in Polish. Obiad is the crrect word even though it says Im wrong
Well, the word "lunch" exists, and its Instrumental (needed by "przed") is "lunchem". The main answer is "przed obiadem".
So the preposition "przed" always requires the instrumental case? Which is why this sentence ends with "obiadem" instead of "obiadu" (which is the genitive case? Please correct me if that is not so...)?
Yes, no matter whether it's "przed" as "in front of" or "przed" as "before", it takes Instrumental.
You may, it just means something different - that you don't drink coffee with (during) lunch.