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  5. "On Friday you will see my un…

"On Friday you will see my uncle at your house."

Translation:El viernes verás a mi tío en tu casa.

January 20, 2013



Does "vas a ver" really mean something that different from "veras"


As much as "you're going to see" means something different from"you will see".


When i was first learning Duo, i was told "vas a" means you are going to / you will. Confused why its not accepted as a correct answer here now.


The functions are similar, but there is a difference in grammar. When you see "vas a", you should always translate it as "going to" before "will". Verbs in the informal second person that translate directly into "you will [do x thing]" generally ends with "ás" (verás = you will see, irás = you will go, harás = you will do).


why isn't it - El viernes lo verás a mi tío en su casa? Isn't "my uncle" the one who needs the pronoun before the verb?


No, because "my uncle" is already present elsewhere in the sentence, so it doesn't make sense to have a pronoun representing it earlier. If you were to translate what you have, it would come up as "On Friday you will see him my uncle at his house" ('his' house because the possessive pronoun 'su' doesn't match the informal singular '[tú] verás', so one is forced to assume it refers to the uncle).

If anything, there would need to be a pronoun for the person being addressed (tú/usted/ustedes), but even that isn't strictly necessary due to there being implicit pronouns as long as the verb is present.


In these lessons you see the indirect and direct object pronouns + the indirect object and object all the time.


en tu casa... en su casa... isnt it the same in this sense?


You have to match both yous in this sentence, so...
tú verás ....tu casa
usted verá ....su casa
ustedes verán ....su casa


Tu casa is singular informal. Su casa is singular formal or plural. In this case it is plural so you have to use su casa no matter what.


That's not strictly true. I think that if he used "tú verás" then "en tu casa" would be correct.


Yes, but that would be assuming that the "you" was a single person referred to informally. That would also be correct, but I was referring to the translation provided in the example.


Duo counted "verás" wrong for no reason that I can see. There is no indication in the sentence that "you" is plural or formal.


it's accepted now (28 Jan 2014)


Sorry, DL has been using vas a ver interchangeably with veras to this point. Not at all consistent by calling it wrong now.

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