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  5. "Wir haben in Restaurants geg…

"Wir haben in Restaurants gegessen."

Translation:We have eaten in restaurants.

March 18, 2016



Anyone else thinking that the correct solutions might be a little wrong?


Why? This is a word for word literal translation, what is wrong about it?


I'm not entirely sure, something just seems a bit odd. That's why I wanted to check if anyone else was getting the same impression :).


No, it is totally right. You might be confused by the use of the plural of Restaurants. Just like in English German offers the posibility of a plural without articles. That is why it is "in Restaurants". If it were singular it would have to be: Wir haben in einem Restaurant or in dem Restaurant/im Restaurant gegessen.


Thanks for taking your time to explain!


I'm having the same impression due to the interchangeable use of two forms of past tense. It's not the same "we ate in restaurants" than "we habe eaten in restaurants". So, which one is correct?

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