24 Comments
Why is 'My first name is Adam' incorrect? Surely 'imię' refers to a first name and 'nazwisko' refers to a surname. At least that's the distinction on forms in Polish. Even if both words literally can translate as 'name,' isn't it more helpful to make it clear that when someone asks you for your 'imię' the person wants your first name, and when the person asks for 'nazwisko,' you're supposed to supply your family name?
Added 'first name' and 'given name'. We try to accept them everywhere where needed, clearly missed that here.
Traditionally in English one's first name is called one's Christian name. Was this counted as wrong because of political correctness?
Does anyone know why 'Adam' following 'na' is in the nomanitive case rather than the accusative? Is it a set expression? I only the understand preposition 'na' as being followed by nomanitive or locative, and then not in the context of 'have'.
I do not think it is incorrect to say either, just unusual. It is, however, a more literal approach to translation. At least the above suggested 'I have Adam for a name' should be accepted, imho.
