For me it sounds a lot like, "The English man pleases the ladies" and correcting me it says "The English man pleases the wives." That made me laugh.
At last a sentence that makes sense!
how do you hear the between "aux femmes" and "au femme"
If i'm not mistaken - au= a + le, and aux = a + les
A singular "femme" would use the definite article - "la"
So you would never say "au femme", it would be "a la femme"
Pourquoi pas "The Englishman pleases ladies"?
I would use "la dame" to mean "lady". "La femme" usually is reserved for "the woman" or "the wife". Correct me if I am wrong.
It accepted "The English man pleases women."
"Anglais" is used as an adjective in this sentence, which you can tell because it is placed after the noun.
Do "au" and "aux" sound different?
No, they sound the same.
They sound different only if followed by a noun beginning with a vowel or mute h, e.g. aux hommes, in which case the x in aux would liaise: au-Z-hommes. But in that case you would use à + l' in the singular, not au, i.e. à l'homme.
hmm, I took this as "the platonic english man is appealing to women" which I would translate as "English men are pleasing to women".
British; I believed English and British were interchangeable with the word Anglais. As the French rarely use Britannique.
That may have been the case thirty or forty years ago, but not so much now..
you would not hear "au femme" as it is incorrect. a la femme would be correct