"To dla nich."
Translation:This is for them.
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If the translation is 'That's for them' I would expect 'To jest dla nich'. Would adding 'jest' be wrong?
To (jest) dla nich= this/that is for them
it's because of "to". You can omit "jest" or "są" after "to".
(do you remember "kot to zwierzę" sentences form the defining lesson?)
Also we have no way of distinguishing this is and that is = both are "to jest"
Nich is a version of "ich" that is used after preposition. It is Genitive and Locative form of "oni/one", and Accusative form of "one".
the whole thing with hints is very strange. I think they stopped adding cases after a while, so some words have all of them, some are incomplete, like this, and some do not have them at all.
https://pl.wiktionary.org/wiki/Aneks:Język_polski_-_zaimki#Zaimki_rzeczowne
Well, apart from "nich" being the only form for Locative for both plurals, you have Genitive (both plurals) and Accusative (masculine personal plural), as immery mentioned. For those two cases, "ich" is the basic form, but "nich" is needed after prepositions.
For example, in Accusative, it's "Widzę ich" (I see them), but "To przez nich!" (It's because of them, it's their fault!". Or Genitive "Potrzebuję ich" (I need them) vs "Idę do nich" (I am going to them).
If a given pronoun has a form starting with n-, but that form is not the only possible form in the table but rather one of the variants - then that form is used after a preposition.
If I were talking to someone in my very basic Polish, and incorrectly said "To dla ich," would a native Polish speaker understand what I was saying, even though it isn't proper?
Probably, although there is a possibility that they wait for you to finish the sentence, given that "ich" also means "their" (It is for their... for their whom? for their what?).
"what do you think of the brotherhood of steel?" "I killed them all" "Oh my god you're not lying are you? To dla nich" Id translate the rest but im not there yet