Why are we taught the colloquial version first, instead of the word 'efallai' that is in the dictionary, and mention 'falle' at a later stage?
Because the contributors want to teach what could be considered useful Welsh I.e the Welsh you are more likely to hear on the streets.
I noticed that in Welsh falle does not work as an adverb, as 'perhaps' or 'maybe' do in English, being simply placed before the verb (e.g. 'Perhaps I am going.'). After falle a subordinate clause is used (e.g. Falle mod i'n mynd. ).
So falle sounds to me as 'there is a chance...', which is followed by a subordinate clause also in English: 'There is a chance that I am going'.
The same construction is used with gobeithio , e.g. Gobeithio mod i'n mynd , which would roughly correspond to 'Let's hope that I go'.
Is this correct?
Pretty much. Both efallai (perhaps) and gobeithio (hopefully) can be used as straightforward adverbs, although gobeithio is also a verb-noun (hoping, to hope). Efallai has its origins as the phrase - ef a allai (roughly, 'that/it which could be').
They can introduce a subordinate clause, and can also be following a clause:
- Bydda i'n mynd yno heno, efallai - I'll go there this evening, perhaps.
- Bydda i'n mynd yno heno, gobeithio - I'll go there this evening, hopefully.
- Gobeithio mod i'n mynd i gael cinio cyn bo hir - Hopefully, I'll have some lunch soon.
Thank you for the explanation!
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Probably not since this is a modern (heavily) shortened version of the traditional word. The traditional word is "Efallai".