"None of them is here."

Translation:Nie ma tu żadnej z nich.

April 4, 2016

35 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/starybeznazwy

The english translation should be none of them are here, as them is plural

November 7, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei
Mod
  • 926

That's accepted as well.

November 7, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/immerweiter

but none is singular

May 14, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/TrevorChri14

In the standard sense, only +1 is singular, everything else is plural. In practice we often nominally treat other numbers, like zero and -1, as singular as well, or place things in wrappers to appear singular, such as ' three is a crowd'

August 2, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Golebia

Agreed, This sentence is grammatically incorrect in English

February 25, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Brandon469259

No it is correct. Both forms are common. I slightly prefer the singular as "none" is a contraction of "not one" and one would definitely say "Not one is here".

November 19, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/germadez

In which situation are the two different answers used?

April 4, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

What do you mean as the "two different answers" ?

April 5, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/germadez

Sorry I should have specified it in my original post, since I can't recall it now. Besides "Nie ma tu żadnej z nich." there was another suggested answer. I think the only difference was in "żadnej", which was instead another negation-word. Or maybe in "nich".

April 5, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

I see. I suppose it might be:

  • Nie ma tu żadnej z nich - "None of them is here" , and both the persons are feminine, or both nouns are feminine type. Like "Czy jest tu moja mama albo babcia? -- Nie ma tu żadnej z nich" [Is here my mother or grandma? -- None of them is here]
  • Nie ma tu żadnego z nich - "None of them is here" , and both the persons are masculine or neutral, or nouns are masculine/neutral type : "Czy jest tu Jacek albo Marek? -- Nie ma tu żadnego z nich" [Is Jack or Mark here? -- None of them is here]
  • Nie ma tu nikogo z nich - "None of them is here" if gender is mixed:

See also the negation pronouns nikt, nic and the negation pronoun żaden (żadna, żadne) or nikt, nic in English - żaden is not described on the English page.

April 5, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/RobertMill875055

Why is this wrong: "tu nie ma zadnego z nich"?

January 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei
Mod
  • 926

Well, seems okay to me. Added.

January 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/ajmaeen

is this correct: 'Żaden z nich są tutaj'

February 1, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

No. "Żaden" is a singular form, just like the English "nobody" - it requires verb in sigular:

"żaden jest" = "nobody is", "no one is"

There is also a plural form of this negation pronoun: "żadni/żadne", which requires verb in plural, but it is used in other types of phrases.

February 1, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/ajmaeen

Got it. so the correct form would be 'Żaden z nich jest tutaj'.... ? i was confused regarding the structure of the sentence, since the solutions shown by duolingo started off more like ' nie ma tu .... '

February 1, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

so the correct form would be 'Żaden z nich jest tutaj'.... ?

Actually, no. The correct version is "Żadnego (genitive case required in negations) z nich tutaj nie ma". An awkward, but comprehensible version would be "Żaden z nich nie jest tutaj". Why so?

First, in Polish, a multiple negation is not an error, just the opposite: it is allowed and to some degree even required by the grammar (some samples below). You may understand it as if the negation pronouns were incomplete: they need the verb to be negated again (if there is a verb; for phrases without verb - yes, in Polish there are cases of implied verb - they are enough for negation). Important note: negation "nie" always must directly precede the verb - no matter where the verb and negation pronoun are placed in the phrase. Otherwise the phrase will be understood as if not the main statement, but some other part of it was negated and the whole meaning of the phrase would most probably go astray.

Second, in Polish, there is one verb used for "to be", and another one for "not to be". This is a heritage of the Proto-Indo-European language, in which "to be" was just "to be", but "not to be" was a form derived from "not have/not own" (so to say, because "something that does not exist, cannot be"). At first, in PIE it was used only in 3-rd person, but later was extended to all the persons, and exactly the same way it still used in Polish. Hence:

  • Nie ma mnie tu = I am not here; or more literally This place does not have me (of course nobody would translate it into English like that)
  • Nie ma ciebie tam = You are not there; or more literally That place does not have you
  • Nie ma nikogo tu or better Nikogo tu nie ma = Nobody is here; or more literally This place does not have anybody

And again about the multiple negation thing: sometimes it is correct to use only one fold negation, but this is quite rare, and can be found only in relatively short phrases:

  • Czy masz swój kapelusz? [Do you have your hat?] -- Nie mam [I do not have]

In most cases, double negation would be used:

  • Czy masz swój kapelusz? [Do you have your hat?] -- Nie, nie mam [No, I do not have]

Sometimes, triple negation may be observed:

  • Czy masz (jakiś) kapelusz? [Do you have (a) hat?] -- Nie, nie mam żadnego [No, I do not have any] or more literally [No, I do not have 'none']

Sometimes a quadruple or even more fold negation may be observed - used for example for greater expression.

  • Czy pijesz piwo? [Do you drink beer] -- Nie, nigdy nie piję żadnego piwa [No, I don't 'never' drink 'no' beer] (I know, that it is a sample of incorrect English)
  • Czy byłeś kiedyś w Londynie? [Have you ever been to London?] -- Nie, nigdy nie byłem w żadnym Londynie [No, I 'have't' never been to any London]
February 1, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/stramner

Why does it require "ma" and doesn't allow "jest"?

February 2, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

See my explanation for ajmaeen.

February 2, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/stramner

"Żaden z nich nie jest tutaj"

So "jest" can be correct in this scenario?

February 3, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

No, in this very phrase it is not correct, even if some speakers of Polish could say so. But I did not know why exactly, so I had to ask someone who knows the Polish grammar a bit better than I do.

It would be only comprehensible, because the part "Żaden z nich nie jest ..." is correct in other type of grammatical structures: in phrases with complex predicate, which consists of one of a few verbs similar to być [to be] or stać się [to become sb/sth] + another word describing the state of subject, that word in most cases would be a noun, noun phrase, adjective, participle, pronoun, adverb or numeral. A few samples with complex predicate that look similar to the above phrase:

  • "Tam jest kilka szklanek, ale żadna z nich nie jest zielona." - There are some glasses there, but none of them is green.
  • "Weszło kilku ludzi, ale żaden z nich nie był żołnierzem." - A few persons entered, but none of them was a soldier
  • "Mam kilku przyjaciół, ale żaden z nich nie jest obecny." - I have a few friends, but none of them is present

Some other, completely different phrases with a complex predicate:

  • "Po studiach został lekarzem." - After studies he became a doctor.
  • "Kiedyś będę sławny." - Someday I will be famous.
  • "To staje się irytujące." - That is becoming annoying.
  • "Telefon okazał się zepsuty." - The phone turned out to be broken.
  • "Przez chwilę wydawał się tobą." - For a while he seemed to be you
  • "Teraz już problem stał się twój." - The problem now became yours.
  • "To brzmi zaskakująco." - This sounds surprisingly.

Attention: "Żaden z nich nie jest tutaj" would not be a phrase with complex predicate (I write would be, because it is not a correct phrase).

The affirmative sentence would be for example "Jeden z nich jest tutaj" One of them is here , so in a negative sentence the general rule of using the pair of verbs "jest" - "nie ma" must be applied: "Żadnego z nich nie ma tutaj".

February 5, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/stramner

>Attention: "Żaden z nich nie jest tutaj" would not be a phrase with complex predicate (I write would be, because it is not a correct phrase).

>The affirmative sentence would be for example "Jeden z nich jest tutaj"

I'm still missing what's the key difference,because of which affirmative sentence can use "jest", but negative not.

Most of your explanation gave me impression that "jest" can be only used with complex predicate and that it can't be used solely, i.e. it can't mean "exist"/"be"(right now I'm referring to "be" when used alone, without complex predicament), but then, the "Jeden z nich jest tutaj" uses word "jest" in exactly same situation I thought was not allowed

February 6, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

You can use "jest" in affirmative sentences, no matter whether it is a complex predicate or a simple one.

With the negative sentences it is different.

If we speak about properties or state of the subject, they are described by complex predicate: a verb + another word, that relates directly do the subject, describes the subject in some way. So in a negative phrase, the subject may be "not green", "not present", "not interesting" etc... Please note that in this type of sentence, being "present" (or not) is a property of the subject, not its localisation.

If we speak about existence or localisation of something (existence in general, or in a specified place) - the word "here" (or its equivalent: "there", "in London", "at work" etc...) relates to the localisation of the subject, not its property. In this type of phrases there is a simple predicate (just the negated verb). Then, in negative phrase you have to say "nie ma" (+ genitive) instead of "nie jest" - as I described it in the other comment.

February 6, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Christine741374

These explanations are way beyond me. Could someone please explain in words of one syllable and in about three lines? Many thanks

August 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei
Mod
  • 926

Will be hard with the syllables... and lines as well, I'm afraid. Anyway:

First, an easier example: "She is not here". Polish uses quite a weird construction for 'not being somewhere'. You have simple "Ona jest tutaj" (She is here), but if you negate it, you arrive at "Nie ma jej tutaj" (literally "There has not her here"), with "her" being in Genitive. It's just a construction you have to remember, because frankly, it's hard to find logic in it.

Secondly, let's focus on the noun phrase "None of them". The creator of this particular sentence wrote it in Polish as "none of them" = "none of those girls/women". So "None of them is here: Sandy's not here, Anna's not here, Judy's not here". The feminine version of "none" is "żadna", and as Genitive is used here, it changes into "Żadnej z nich". 'z' here means 'of', and it itself also takes Genitive, that's why 'nich' is the right form.

As for "tu" and "tutaj", they are interchangeable, but "tu" really sounds clumsy at the end of the sentence. Putting "tutaj" at the end, if it can be avoided, is also not recommended, it gives a strong emphasis on "HERE". Ergo, "Żadnej z nich tutaj nie ma". "nie ma" goes at the end, because them 'not being' here is the new, most important information.

August 27, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

It's just a construction you have to remember, because frankly, it's hard to find logic in it.

Actually, there is an explanation for this structure. There is a hypothesis, that it dates from the Pre-Indo-European language, in which existed a verb, that in some situations meant "to be", in other "to have" (this verb, habeo/habere existed also in ancient Latin - which also comes from P.I.E., a branch different than Polish). In P.I.E. only something that existed could "be". Something that did not exist could not "be". Instead, there was another structure to say the "non existence" of something: "the place does not have that thing" (I recall a similar structure in Spanish, e.g. "No hay agua en la piscina" may be also said "La piscina no tiene agua" - "There is no water in the pool"; the Spanish "tener" is "to have").

Before Proto-Slavic language evolved from P.I.E., and then Polish from Proto-Slavic - this verb split into 2 verbs: one meaning "to be", another "to have". But the structure itself persisted.

Therefore in Polish we say "something is", but "(a place) does not have something". And the implied location disappeared from this structure during the five thousand years of the development of Polish from P.I.E. leading to a shorter structure "does not have something", which is not that strange in Polish, where phrases without subject are very common and absolutely correct, e.g. "Pada" means "(It) rains".

June 14, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/HelbentForleder

This makes me want to study Klingon. Ouch.

January 20, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/wiktorka234

Dlaczego tutaj jest "żadnej?"

October 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/immery

it could be "żadnego" without context you can't tell which gender you should use.

none /no+ something = żaden/żadna/żadne

"nie ma" needs genitive - żadnego/żadnej/ żadnego

October 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/wiktorka234

Oh. Teraz rozumiem. Dziękuję bardzo! :)

October 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/LICA98

can't it be "żadne z nich nie jest tu"?

June 14, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/br0d4
Mod
  • 1311

It is not advised to use the short form "tu" at the end of the phrase. In this very case, it is not a grammatical mistake, but stylistic one. However, in many cases it is just incorrect to use at the end of a phrase the short form of a word that has short and long one.

Having said that - using "nie jest" instead of "nie ma" is very, very unnatural in Polish. In some contexts it may be acceptable - perhaps in poetry, but in regular speech when you say that something "nie jest" instead of "nie ma" - you say actually, that it "is, but in another place" - which is rarely what you actually want to say.

Shortly: do not say that - unless you really know what you are saying.

Sample of correct use could be, that you receive a phone call from your contractor, asking whether you have already read the email he has sent you a few minutes ago - you may answer then "I am not in the office now" = "Nie jestem teraz w biurze", which actually means "Jestem teraz w innym miejscu niż biuro, ale nie powiem gdzie" = "At this moment I am in a place different than the office, but I am not going to tell you where".

June 14, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/peter138415

Doesn't this translate to! There is none of them here

August 16, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Jellei
Mod
  • 926

This is also an accepted answer.

August 18, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/TrevorChri14

As one can see from the type of answers the teaching here for this aspect is not good enough as it appeals to the grammar freaks

October 8, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/ajdedinburgh

Its sentences like this that make me realise i know nothing in Polish

January 28, 2019
Learn Polish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.