The speaker is searching for two (or more) women/girls. After checking one of the rooms, they say to someone accompanying them during the search:
"Nie ma tu żadnej z nich."
They go on searching in other rooms.
(Alternative plot: they might also have been looking for multiple books. Or ducks. Or pizzas. Or any other feminine noun.)
'None of them is here' is also correct in English... I just got this sentence today.
"Singular or plural usage
When none means no one or not any, use whichever verb makes more sense.
None of the printers are working. None of the printers is working.
None of you are guilty. None of you is guilty.
The online Oxford Dictionaries states:
It is sometimes held that none can only take a singular verb, never a plural verb: none of them is coming tonight rather than none of them are coming tonight. There is little justification, historical or grammatical, for this view. None is descended from Old English nān meaning ‘not one’ and has been used for around a thousand years with both a singular and a plural verb, depending on the context and the emphasis needed."
Using a singular verb with none is technically correct, but it sounds very unnatural outside of a few regional dialects.
If the question was about, let's say, four girls, you will use "żadnej" to point out that none of them, not even one is here.
Great discussion, but what does the preposition "z" before "nich" mean? I keep thinking "with," but I know this wrong.
'Them' is plural in American English and thus the conjugation of 'to be' should be 'are'
Just like "zero" is plural (it's "one car" but "zero cars"), "none" requires plural agreement in English.
So "None(Not one) of them ARE ...". What about the non-negated? "One of them ..."?
I guess either literal "Jeden/Jedna z nich..." or maybe "Ktoś z nich..." (someone out of them).
'None' means 'not one' so it strictly should take a singular verb ... but common practice is for it to take the plural.
LizBaran points out that the Oxford Dictionaries say that there is little justification for the claim that the word "none" should take a singular verb. I usually use a plural verb with it, myself.
to me this reads "no have here...(not sure about the rest)". can someone please break it down?
If you write a sentence that "there is no", it's literally "there has no" in Polish. And then it takes Genitive.
"Nie ma mnie w domu" (There has no me at home)
"W Polsce nie ma kosmitów" (There has no aliens in Poland) (I do mean 'aliens' from space).
'żadnej z nich' (Genitive) = none of them, feminine (suggests that you discussed some women and none of them is here). masculine version: żadnego.
Am I correct in thinking this statement reads "you do not have here any of them" just trying to get my head around it?
Close. There is no 'you'. It's like "There has no here any of them". Which is even weirder from the point of view of English.
Is "żadnych" accepted here also? Seems a lot of discussion here as to whether we are negating plural/singular but with no real conclusion...
No, it's not. The discussion is about English, but if we stayed with singular in English (whether it was correct or not), I believe we should stay in singular in Polish. And "Nie ma tu żadnych z nich" sounds pretty weird to me. If "There is none of them here", then it means "not even one" and not "not even two". The plural version would be as saying "OK, so Martha & Sue aren't here. Same for Bob & Mark. And John & Susan."
That is what is problematic, that many English speakers say that it should be plural, but in Polish it has very little logic to use plural, because not even one person out of 'them' is present here.
It's not only accepted, but even starred. This discussion page shows that it's hard to translate this sentence into English.
Can someone tell my what is wrong with the sentence "There is neither of them here"? Thanks. :)
'neither' would imply only two people/things are 'not here' but the Polish doesn't imply only two. If it did, 'neither of them are here' would be better than 'there is neither...'